If the gradient of a vector is zero, does that imply that the laplacian of the vector is a null vector?
$begingroup$
Suposse $nabla cdot vec{u} = 0$
Does that imply that $Delta vec{u} = vec{0}$
Thank you!
vector-analysis laplacian divergence
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suposse $nabla cdot vec{u} = 0$
Does that imply that $Delta vec{u} = vec{0}$
Thank you!
vector-analysis laplacian divergence
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Careful, the gradient operator only applies to scalar fields. It looks like you have specified that the divergence of the vector field $vec{u}$ (judging by the arrow and the dot after the $nabla$) is zero.
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– E-mu
Jan 9 at 13:00
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suposse $nabla cdot vec{u} = 0$
Does that imply that $Delta vec{u} = vec{0}$
Thank you!
vector-analysis laplacian divergence
$endgroup$
Suposse $nabla cdot vec{u} = 0$
Does that imply that $Delta vec{u} = vec{0}$
Thank you!
vector-analysis laplacian divergence
vector-analysis laplacian divergence
asked Jan 9 at 12:40


L CL C
1
1
$begingroup$
Careful, the gradient operator only applies to scalar fields. It looks like you have specified that the divergence of the vector field $vec{u}$ (judging by the arrow and the dot after the $nabla$) is zero.
$endgroup$
– E-mu
Jan 9 at 13:00
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Careful, the gradient operator only applies to scalar fields. It looks like you have specified that the divergence of the vector field $vec{u}$ (judging by the arrow and the dot after the $nabla$) is zero.
$endgroup$
– E-mu
Jan 9 at 13:00
$begingroup$
Careful, the gradient operator only applies to scalar fields. It looks like you have specified that the divergence of the vector field $vec{u}$ (judging by the arrow and the dot after the $nabla$) is zero.
$endgroup$
– E-mu
Jan 9 at 13:00
$begingroup$
Careful, the gradient operator only applies to scalar fields. It looks like you have specified that the divergence of the vector field $vec{u}$ (judging by the arrow and the dot after the $nabla$) is zero.
$endgroup$
– E-mu
Jan 9 at 13:00
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
To show that it is not true (note that the Laplacian has to be taken component wise for this question to even make sense), take a look at the vector field
$$vec{u}(x,y,z)= begin{pmatrix} y^2\0\0 end{pmatrix}$$
and show that the divergence vanishes but the Laplacian does not.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the example!
$endgroup$
– L C
Jan 9 at 13:08
add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
To show that it is not true (note that the Laplacian has to be taken component wise for this question to even make sense), take a look at the vector field
$$vec{u}(x,y,z)= begin{pmatrix} y^2\0\0 end{pmatrix}$$
and show that the divergence vanishes but the Laplacian does not.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the example!
$endgroup$
– L C
Jan 9 at 13:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To show that it is not true (note that the Laplacian has to be taken component wise for this question to even make sense), take a look at the vector field
$$vec{u}(x,y,z)= begin{pmatrix} y^2\0\0 end{pmatrix}$$
and show that the divergence vanishes but the Laplacian does not.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the example!
$endgroup$
– L C
Jan 9 at 13:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To show that it is not true (note that the Laplacian has to be taken component wise for this question to even make sense), take a look at the vector field
$$vec{u}(x,y,z)= begin{pmatrix} y^2\0\0 end{pmatrix}$$
and show that the divergence vanishes but the Laplacian does not.
$endgroup$
To show that it is not true (note that the Laplacian has to be taken component wise for this question to even make sense), take a look at the vector field
$$vec{u}(x,y,z)= begin{pmatrix} y^2\0\0 end{pmatrix}$$
and show that the divergence vanishes but the Laplacian does not.
answered Jan 9 at 12:57
FabianFabian
19.7k3674
19.7k3674
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Thank you for the example!
$endgroup$
– L C
Jan 9 at 13:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you for the example!
$endgroup$
– L C
Jan 9 at 13:08
$begingroup$
Thank you for the example!
$endgroup$
– L C
Jan 9 at 13:08
$begingroup$
Thank you for the example!
$endgroup$
– L C
Jan 9 at 13:08
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Careful, the gradient operator only applies to scalar fields. It looks like you have specified that the divergence of the vector field $vec{u}$ (judging by the arrow and the dot after the $nabla$) is zero.
$endgroup$
– E-mu
Jan 9 at 13:00