Is this sequence of functions uniformly convergent?












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Let $a,b in mathbb{R}$ with $0<a<b$. For each $nin mathbb{N}$, let $f_n:[a,b]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ be defined by $f_n(x):=left(1+frac{ln x}{n}right)^n$.



Then it is easy to see that $limlimits_{nlongrightarrow infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ pointwise, where $f(x)=x$.



Is it true that $limlimits_{nlongrightarrow infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ uniformly on $[a,b]$ ?










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For a>1, you can use Dini's theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – J.F
    Jan 18 at 20:30










  • $begingroup$
    @G.F: If $a<1$, then it seems possible to handle the intervals $[a,1]$ and $[1,b]$ separately?
    $endgroup$
    – W-t-P
    Jan 18 at 20:38
















0












$begingroup$


Let $a,b in mathbb{R}$ with $0<a<b$. For each $nin mathbb{N}$, let $f_n:[a,b]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ be defined by $f_n(x):=left(1+frac{ln x}{n}right)^n$.



Then it is easy to see that $limlimits_{nlongrightarrow infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ pointwise, where $f(x)=x$.



Is it true that $limlimits_{nlongrightarrow infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ uniformly on $[a,b]$ ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For a>1, you can use Dini's theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – J.F
    Jan 18 at 20:30










  • $begingroup$
    @G.F: If $a<1$, then it seems possible to handle the intervals $[a,1]$ and $[1,b]$ separately?
    $endgroup$
    – W-t-P
    Jan 18 at 20:38














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $a,b in mathbb{R}$ with $0<a<b$. For each $nin mathbb{N}$, let $f_n:[a,b]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ be defined by $f_n(x):=left(1+frac{ln x}{n}right)^n$.



Then it is easy to see that $limlimits_{nlongrightarrow infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ pointwise, where $f(x)=x$.



Is it true that $limlimits_{nlongrightarrow infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ uniformly on $[a,b]$ ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $a,b in mathbb{R}$ with $0<a<b$. For each $nin mathbb{N}$, let $f_n:[a,b]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ be defined by $f_n(x):=left(1+frac{ln x}{n}right)^n$.



Then it is easy to see that $limlimits_{nlongrightarrow infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ pointwise, where $f(x)=x$.



Is it true that $limlimits_{nlongrightarrow infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ uniformly on $[a,b]$ ?







analysis






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edited Jan 18 at 20:32









MPW

30.4k12157




30.4k12157










asked Jan 18 at 20:20









serenusserenus

24316




24316








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For a>1, you can use Dini's theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – J.F
    Jan 18 at 20:30










  • $begingroup$
    @G.F: If $a<1$, then it seems possible to handle the intervals $[a,1]$ and $[1,b]$ separately?
    $endgroup$
    – W-t-P
    Jan 18 at 20:38














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For a>1, you can use Dini's theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – J.F
    Jan 18 at 20:30










  • $begingroup$
    @G.F: If $a<1$, then it seems possible to handle the intervals $[a,1]$ and $[1,b]$ separately?
    $endgroup$
    – W-t-P
    Jan 18 at 20:38








1




1




$begingroup$
For a>1, you can use Dini's theorem.
$endgroup$
– J.F
Jan 18 at 20:30




$begingroup$
For a>1, you can use Dini's theorem.
$endgroup$
– J.F
Jan 18 at 20:30












$begingroup$
@G.F: If $a<1$, then it seems possible to handle the intervals $[a,1]$ and $[1,b]$ separately?
$endgroup$
– W-t-P
Jan 18 at 20:38




$begingroup$
@G.F: If $a<1$, then it seems possible to handle the intervals $[a,1]$ and $[1,b]$ separately?
$endgroup$
– W-t-P
Jan 18 at 20:38










1 Answer
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Note that $$f_n(x)le f(x)$$ therefore we need to show that there exists $N$ such that for $0<ale xle b$ and $n>N$ $$0le f(x)-f_n(x)<epsilon$$we need to show that $$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)$$can be bounded arbitrarily small for $N$ being sufficiently large. Now note that$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}$$where $x_0$ is a critical point of $x-f_n(x)$ since $x-f_n(x)$ is differentiable over $[a,b]$ i.e. for $x_0$:$$1=f'_n(x_0)to left(1+{ln xover n}right)^{n-1}=x_0$$by substituting we obtain $$x_0-f_n(x_0)=-{x_0ln x_0over n}$$therefore$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}\=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),{-x_0ln x_0over n}Big}$$but both $a-f_n(a)$ and $b-f_n(b)$ tend to $0$ and ${-x_0ln x_0over n}$ is bounded whenever $ale x_0le b$. Therefore the proof is complete.






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    $begingroup$

    Note that $$f_n(x)le f(x)$$ therefore we need to show that there exists $N$ such that for $0<ale xle b$ and $n>N$ $$0le f(x)-f_n(x)<epsilon$$we need to show that $$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)$$can be bounded arbitrarily small for $N$ being sufficiently large. Now note that$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}$$where $x_0$ is a critical point of $x-f_n(x)$ since $x-f_n(x)$ is differentiable over $[a,b]$ i.e. for $x_0$:$$1=f'_n(x_0)to left(1+{ln xover n}right)^{n-1}=x_0$$by substituting we obtain $$x_0-f_n(x_0)=-{x_0ln x_0over n}$$therefore$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}\=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),{-x_0ln x_0over n}Big}$$but both $a-f_n(a)$ and $b-f_n(b)$ tend to $0$ and ${-x_0ln x_0over n}$ is bounded whenever $ale x_0le b$. Therefore the proof is complete.






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      0












      $begingroup$

      Note that $$f_n(x)le f(x)$$ therefore we need to show that there exists $N$ such that for $0<ale xle b$ and $n>N$ $$0le f(x)-f_n(x)<epsilon$$we need to show that $$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)$$can be bounded arbitrarily small for $N$ being sufficiently large. Now note that$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}$$where $x_0$ is a critical point of $x-f_n(x)$ since $x-f_n(x)$ is differentiable over $[a,b]$ i.e. for $x_0$:$$1=f'_n(x_0)to left(1+{ln xover n}right)^{n-1}=x_0$$by substituting we obtain $$x_0-f_n(x_0)=-{x_0ln x_0over n}$$therefore$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}\=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),{-x_0ln x_0over n}Big}$$but both $a-f_n(a)$ and $b-f_n(b)$ tend to $0$ and ${-x_0ln x_0over n}$ is bounded whenever $ale x_0le b$. Therefore the proof is complete.






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Note that $$f_n(x)le f(x)$$ therefore we need to show that there exists $N$ such that for $0<ale xle b$ and $n>N$ $$0le f(x)-f_n(x)<epsilon$$we need to show that $$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)$$can be bounded arbitrarily small for $N$ being sufficiently large. Now note that$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}$$where $x_0$ is a critical point of $x-f_n(x)$ since $x-f_n(x)$ is differentiable over $[a,b]$ i.e. for $x_0$:$$1=f'_n(x_0)to left(1+{ln xover n}right)^{n-1}=x_0$$by substituting we obtain $$x_0-f_n(x_0)=-{x_0ln x_0over n}$$therefore$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}\=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),{-x_0ln x_0over n}Big}$$but both $a-f_n(a)$ and $b-f_n(b)$ tend to $0$ and ${-x_0ln x_0over n}$ is bounded whenever $ale x_0le b$. Therefore the proof is complete.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Note that $$f_n(x)le f(x)$$ therefore we need to show that there exists $N$ such that for $0<ale xle b$ and $n>N$ $$0le f(x)-f_n(x)<epsilon$$we need to show that $$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)$$can be bounded arbitrarily small for $N$ being sufficiently large. Now note that$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}$$where $x_0$ is a critical point of $x-f_n(x)$ since $x-f_n(x)$ is differentiable over $[a,b]$ i.e. for $x_0$:$$1=f'_n(x_0)to left(1+{ln xover n}right)^{n-1}=x_0$$by substituting we obtain $$x_0-f_n(x_0)=-{x_0ln x_0over n}$$therefore$$max_{ale xle b} f(x)-f_n(x)=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),x_0-f_n(x_0)Big}\=max_{x_0text{ is a critical point in }[a,b]}Big{a-f_n(a),b-f_n(b),{-x_0ln x_0over n}Big}$$but both $a-f_n(a)$ and $b-f_n(b)$ tend to $0$ and ${-x_0ln x_0over n}$ is bounded whenever $ale x_0le b$. Therefore the proof is complete.







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        answered Jan 18 at 21:26









        Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

        15.6k3939




        15.6k3939






























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