Why is the multinomial coefficient best suited in this case?












0












$begingroup$


Let there be $m$ boxes and $k$ balls where the probability that a ball is laid in box $i$ ($1leq i leq m)$ is $p_{i}$



Define a probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$:



Idea:



Define $Omega:={(omega_{1},...,omega_{m})in mathbb N_{0}^{m}:sum_{i=1}^{m}omega_{i}=k}$



Since $m in mathbb N$, we're in a discrete case and therefore $mathcal{F}=mathcal{P}(Omega)$



Now onto the distribution:



Let $omega:=(omega_{1},...,omega_{m})$



$P({w})=prod_{i=1}^{m}(cdot)p_{i}^{omega_{i}}$



where $(cdot)$ is meant to represent a particular combination. I would have thought that the binomial coefficient would have been a good idea, but I have been told it is rather the multinomial coefficient, but I do not understand why.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let there be $m$ boxes and $k$ balls where the probability that a ball is laid in box $i$ ($1leq i leq m)$ is $p_{i}$



    Define a probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$:



    Idea:



    Define $Omega:={(omega_{1},...,omega_{m})in mathbb N_{0}^{m}:sum_{i=1}^{m}omega_{i}=k}$



    Since $m in mathbb N$, we're in a discrete case and therefore $mathcal{F}=mathcal{P}(Omega)$



    Now onto the distribution:



    Let $omega:=(omega_{1},...,omega_{m})$



    $P({w})=prod_{i=1}^{m}(cdot)p_{i}^{omega_{i}}$



    where $(cdot)$ is meant to represent a particular combination. I would have thought that the binomial coefficient would have been a good idea, but I have been told it is rather the multinomial coefficient, but I do not understand why.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let there be $m$ boxes and $k$ balls where the probability that a ball is laid in box $i$ ($1leq i leq m)$ is $p_{i}$



      Define a probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$:



      Idea:



      Define $Omega:={(omega_{1},...,omega_{m})in mathbb N_{0}^{m}:sum_{i=1}^{m}omega_{i}=k}$



      Since $m in mathbb N$, we're in a discrete case and therefore $mathcal{F}=mathcal{P}(Omega)$



      Now onto the distribution:



      Let $omega:=(omega_{1},...,omega_{m})$



      $P({w})=prod_{i=1}^{m}(cdot)p_{i}^{omega_{i}}$



      where $(cdot)$ is meant to represent a particular combination. I would have thought that the binomial coefficient would have been a good idea, but I have been told it is rather the multinomial coefficient, but I do not understand why.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let there be $m$ boxes and $k$ balls where the probability that a ball is laid in box $i$ ($1leq i leq m)$ is $p_{i}$



      Define a probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$:



      Idea:



      Define $Omega:={(omega_{1},...,omega_{m})in mathbb N_{0}^{m}:sum_{i=1}^{m}omega_{i}=k}$



      Since $m in mathbb N$, we're in a discrete case and therefore $mathcal{F}=mathcal{P}(Omega)$



      Now onto the distribution:



      Let $omega:=(omega_{1},...,omega_{m})$



      $P({w})=prod_{i=1}^{m}(cdot)p_{i}^{omega_{i}}$



      where $(cdot)$ is meant to represent a particular combination. I would have thought that the binomial coefficient would have been a good idea, but I have been told it is rather the multinomial coefficient, but I do not understand why.







      probability combinatorics probability-theory probability-distributions






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      edited Jan 14 at 16:53







      SABOY

















      asked Jan 14 at 16:34









      SABOYSABOY

      694311




      694311






















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          $begingroup$

          A binomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials. The outcome of a Bernoulli trial is either $0$ or $1$; or more generally, a binary set of outcomes.



          A multinomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed categorical trials. The outcome of a categorical trial is some number in ${0, 1, 2, ldots, m-1}$, where $m ge 2$; or more generally, some discrete and finite set of outcomes.



          I chose $m$ in such a way that it matches the $m$ in your problem. If you have only $2$ boxes, then the resulting distribution of balls is binomial, because for any given ball, there are only two choices for which box to place it. If you have more than $2$ boxes, then it is not possible to characterize the distribution of balls using only a single binomial variable. you'd need to describe whether a given ball is put into the first, second, or third box, for example.






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            1 Answer
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            1 Answer
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            $begingroup$

            A binomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials. The outcome of a Bernoulli trial is either $0$ or $1$; or more generally, a binary set of outcomes.



            A multinomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed categorical trials. The outcome of a categorical trial is some number in ${0, 1, 2, ldots, m-1}$, where $m ge 2$; or more generally, some discrete and finite set of outcomes.



            I chose $m$ in such a way that it matches the $m$ in your problem. If you have only $2$ boxes, then the resulting distribution of balls is binomial, because for any given ball, there are only two choices for which box to place it. If you have more than $2$ boxes, then it is not possible to characterize the distribution of balls using only a single binomial variable. you'd need to describe whether a given ball is put into the first, second, or third box, for example.






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              0












              $begingroup$

              A binomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials. The outcome of a Bernoulli trial is either $0$ or $1$; or more generally, a binary set of outcomes.



              A multinomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed categorical trials. The outcome of a categorical trial is some number in ${0, 1, 2, ldots, m-1}$, where $m ge 2$; or more generally, some discrete and finite set of outcomes.



              I chose $m$ in such a way that it matches the $m$ in your problem. If you have only $2$ boxes, then the resulting distribution of balls is binomial, because for any given ball, there are only two choices for which box to place it. If you have more than $2$ boxes, then it is not possible to characterize the distribution of balls using only a single binomial variable. you'd need to describe whether a given ball is put into the first, second, or third box, for example.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                A binomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials. The outcome of a Bernoulli trial is either $0$ or $1$; or more generally, a binary set of outcomes.



                A multinomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed categorical trials. The outcome of a categorical trial is some number in ${0, 1, 2, ldots, m-1}$, where $m ge 2$; or more generally, some discrete and finite set of outcomes.



                I chose $m$ in such a way that it matches the $m$ in your problem. If you have only $2$ boxes, then the resulting distribution of balls is binomial, because for any given ball, there are only two choices for which box to place it. If you have more than $2$ boxes, then it is not possible to characterize the distribution of balls using only a single binomial variable. you'd need to describe whether a given ball is put into the first, second, or third box, for example.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                A binomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials. The outcome of a Bernoulli trial is either $0$ or $1$; or more generally, a binary set of outcomes.



                A multinomial distribution arises from the sum of independent and identically distributed categorical trials. The outcome of a categorical trial is some number in ${0, 1, 2, ldots, m-1}$, where $m ge 2$; or more generally, some discrete and finite set of outcomes.



                I chose $m$ in such a way that it matches the $m$ in your problem. If you have only $2$ boxes, then the resulting distribution of balls is binomial, because for any given ball, there are only two choices for which box to place it. If you have more than $2$ boxes, then it is not possible to characterize the distribution of balls using only a single binomial variable. you'd need to describe whether a given ball is put into the first, second, or third box, for example.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 14 at 16:43









                heropupheropup

                63.8k762102




                63.8k762102






























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