Analytic proof that infinite level sets of complex polynomials aren't compact












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I've heard it stated that if you have a family $p_{1}, ldots, p_{ell} in mathbb{C}[x_1 , ldots , x_n]$ of $n$-variate complex polynomials, then the set $F = bigcap_{j = 1}^{ell} p_{j}^{-1} ({0}) subseteq mathbb{C}^n$ is either finite, or not compact in the standard topology on $mathbb{C}^n$. My understanding is that this claim can be demonstrated by algebraic-geometric means, though the methods are rather involved. Can it be proven by analytic methods? I assume that it won't be a simple or easy argument, but can it be reasonably done?



Thanks!



EDIT: We've figured out how to show that if $p$ is nonconstant, then the null set of $p$ is either finite (if $n = 1$) or unbounded (if $n > 1$). But that's it.










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    1












    $begingroup$


    I've heard it stated that if you have a family $p_{1}, ldots, p_{ell} in mathbb{C}[x_1 , ldots , x_n]$ of $n$-variate complex polynomials, then the set $F = bigcap_{j = 1}^{ell} p_{j}^{-1} ({0}) subseteq mathbb{C}^n$ is either finite, or not compact in the standard topology on $mathbb{C}^n$. My understanding is that this claim can be demonstrated by algebraic-geometric means, though the methods are rather involved. Can it be proven by analytic methods? I assume that it won't be a simple or easy argument, but can it be reasonably done?



    Thanks!



    EDIT: We've figured out how to show that if $p$ is nonconstant, then the null set of $p$ is either finite (if $n = 1$) or unbounded (if $n > 1$). But that's it.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      I've heard it stated that if you have a family $p_{1}, ldots, p_{ell} in mathbb{C}[x_1 , ldots , x_n]$ of $n$-variate complex polynomials, then the set $F = bigcap_{j = 1}^{ell} p_{j}^{-1} ({0}) subseteq mathbb{C}^n$ is either finite, or not compact in the standard topology on $mathbb{C}^n$. My understanding is that this claim can be demonstrated by algebraic-geometric means, though the methods are rather involved. Can it be proven by analytic methods? I assume that it won't be a simple or easy argument, but can it be reasonably done?



      Thanks!



      EDIT: We've figured out how to show that if $p$ is nonconstant, then the null set of $p$ is either finite (if $n = 1$) or unbounded (if $n > 1$). But that's it.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I've heard it stated that if you have a family $p_{1}, ldots, p_{ell} in mathbb{C}[x_1 , ldots , x_n]$ of $n$-variate complex polynomials, then the set $F = bigcap_{j = 1}^{ell} p_{j}^{-1} ({0}) subseteq mathbb{C}^n$ is either finite, or not compact in the standard topology on $mathbb{C}^n$. My understanding is that this claim can be demonstrated by algebraic-geometric means, though the methods are rather involved. Can it be proven by analytic methods? I assume that it won't be a simple or easy argument, but can it be reasonably done?



      Thanks!



      EDIT: We've figured out how to show that if $p$ is nonconstant, then the null set of $p$ is either finite (if $n = 1$) or unbounded (if $n > 1$). But that's it.







      complex-analysis algebraic-geometry complex-geometry several-complex-variables






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      edited Jan 28 at 15:26







      AJY

















      asked Jan 28 at 15:04









      AJYAJY

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