Infinite union of countable sets proof.












0












$begingroup$


I understand how to prove that the union of 2 countable sets is countable. I then began to think we can use induction to say that the countable union of countable sets are also countable. However my textbook says otherwise. How come? Also it says that numbers arranged into a square like so



1 3 6 10 15 . . .



2 5 9 14 . . .



4 8 13 . . .



7 12 . . .



11 . . .
.
.
.



proves this theorem. I fail to make the connection.



Thanks alot.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I understand how to prove that the union of 2 countable sets is countable. I then began to think we can use induction to say that the countable union of countable sets are also countable. However my textbook says otherwise. How come? Also it says that numbers arranged into a square like so



    1 3 6 10 15 . . .



    2 5 9 14 . . .



    4 8 13 . . .



    7 12 . . .



    11 . . .
    .
    .
    .



    proves this theorem. I fail to make the connection.



    Thanks alot.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I understand how to prove that the union of 2 countable sets is countable. I then began to think we can use induction to say that the countable union of countable sets are also countable. However my textbook says otherwise. How come? Also it says that numbers arranged into a square like so



      1 3 6 10 15 . . .



      2 5 9 14 . . .



      4 8 13 . . .



      7 12 . . .



      11 . . .
      .
      .
      .



      proves this theorem. I fail to make the connection.



      Thanks alot.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I understand how to prove that the union of 2 countable sets is countable. I then began to think we can use induction to say that the countable union of countable sets are also countable. However my textbook says otherwise. How come? Also it says that numbers arranged into a square like so



      1 3 6 10 15 . . .



      2 5 9 14 . . .



      4 8 13 . . .



      7 12 . . .



      11 . . .
      .
      .
      .



      proves this theorem. I fail to make the connection.



      Thanks alot.







      real-analysis analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jun 14 '16 at 8:28







      user99914

















      asked Jun 14 '16 at 8:22









      benssiaobenssiao

      113




      113






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          0












          $begingroup$

          An infinite union of countable sets may not be countable. For example, take the sets



          $$A_x = {n+x| ninmathbb N}$$



          so each set $A_x$ is countable, but $$bigcup_{xin[0,1]} A_x = mathbb R,$$



          which is not countable.





          However, your "square proof" would work fine to prove the statement




          A countable union of countable sets is countable.




          The proof would work because you can map the set $mathbb N$ to the countable union of countable sets, by mapping $1$ to the first element of the first set, then $2$ to the first element of the second set, $3$ to the first element of the first set, $4$ to the first element of the third set, and so on.





          This statement would be very hard to prove by induction, however, because induction can only ever prove statements that are true for each element of $mathbb N$, not statements about the set as a whole.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Awesome! Thanks alot. My textbook must have a type because it claims that an infinite union of countable sets is countable.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao What book is that, and what page is the typo on, so we can all correct it in our copies?
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:52










          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Are you sure the textbook doesn't say "countably infinite"?
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:58










          • $begingroup$
            Isnt countable and countably infinite the same? In the sense they are the same as saying a function is a bijection between N and A where A is any set. I have Stephen Abbott's second edition of Understanding Analysis. I am looking at theorem 1.5.8 ii on page 29.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:06












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Not entirely. Countable may also be finite. But even if you mean countable as "countably infinite", still, the terms infinite and countably infinite are certainly not the same.
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:09












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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          An infinite union of countable sets may not be countable. For example, take the sets



          $$A_x = {n+x| ninmathbb N}$$



          so each set $A_x$ is countable, but $$bigcup_{xin[0,1]} A_x = mathbb R,$$



          which is not countable.





          However, your "square proof" would work fine to prove the statement




          A countable union of countable sets is countable.




          The proof would work because you can map the set $mathbb N$ to the countable union of countable sets, by mapping $1$ to the first element of the first set, then $2$ to the first element of the second set, $3$ to the first element of the first set, $4$ to the first element of the third set, and so on.





          This statement would be very hard to prove by induction, however, because induction can only ever prove statements that are true for each element of $mathbb N$, not statements about the set as a whole.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Awesome! Thanks alot. My textbook must have a type because it claims that an infinite union of countable sets is countable.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao What book is that, and what page is the typo on, so we can all correct it in our copies?
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:52










          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Are you sure the textbook doesn't say "countably infinite"?
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:58










          • $begingroup$
            Isnt countable and countably infinite the same? In the sense they are the same as saying a function is a bijection between N and A where A is any set. I have Stephen Abbott's second edition of Understanding Analysis. I am looking at theorem 1.5.8 ii on page 29.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:06












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Not entirely. Countable may also be finite. But even if you mean countable as "countably infinite", still, the terms infinite and countably infinite are certainly not the same.
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:09
















          0












          $begingroup$

          An infinite union of countable sets may not be countable. For example, take the sets



          $$A_x = {n+x| ninmathbb N}$$



          so each set $A_x$ is countable, but $$bigcup_{xin[0,1]} A_x = mathbb R,$$



          which is not countable.





          However, your "square proof" would work fine to prove the statement




          A countable union of countable sets is countable.




          The proof would work because you can map the set $mathbb N$ to the countable union of countable sets, by mapping $1$ to the first element of the first set, then $2$ to the first element of the second set, $3$ to the first element of the first set, $4$ to the first element of the third set, and so on.





          This statement would be very hard to prove by induction, however, because induction can only ever prove statements that are true for each element of $mathbb N$, not statements about the set as a whole.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Awesome! Thanks alot. My textbook must have a type because it claims that an infinite union of countable sets is countable.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao What book is that, and what page is the typo on, so we can all correct it in our copies?
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:52










          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Are you sure the textbook doesn't say "countably infinite"?
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:58










          • $begingroup$
            Isnt countable and countably infinite the same? In the sense they are the same as saying a function is a bijection between N and A where A is any set. I have Stephen Abbott's second edition of Understanding Analysis. I am looking at theorem 1.5.8 ii on page 29.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:06












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Not entirely. Countable may also be finite. But even if you mean countable as "countably infinite", still, the terms infinite and countably infinite are certainly not the same.
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:09














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          An infinite union of countable sets may not be countable. For example, take the sets



          $$A_x = {n+x| ninmathbb N}$$



          so each set $A_x$ is countable, but $$bigcup_{xin[0,1]} A_x = mathbb R,$$



          which is not countable.





          However, your "square proof" would work fine to prove the statement




          A countable union of countable sets is countable.




          The proof would work because you can map the set $mathbb N$ to the countable union of countable sets, by mapping $1$ to the first element of the first set, then $2$ to the first element of the second set, $3$ to the first element of the first set, $4$ to the first element of the third set, and so on.





          This statement would be very hard to prove by induction, however, because induction can only ever prove statements that are true for each element of $mathbb N$, not statements about the set as a whole.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          An infinite union of countable sets may not be countable. For example, take the sets



          $$A_x = {n+x| ninmathbb N}$$



          so each set $A_x$ is countable, but $$bigcup_{xin[0,1]} A_x = mathbb R,$$



          which is not countable.





          However, your "square proof" would work fine to prove the statement




          A countable union of countable sets is countable.




          The proof would work because you can map the set $mathbb N$ to the countable union of countable sets, by mapping $1$ to the first element of the first set, then $2$ to the first element of the second set, $3$ to the first element of the first set, $4$ to the first element of the third set, and so on.





          This statement would be very hard to prove by induction, however, because induction can only ever prove statements that are true for each element of $mathbb N$, not statements about the set as a whole.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jun 14 '16 at 8:31

























          answered Jun 14 '16 at 8:26









          5xum5xum

          91.8k394161




          91.8k394161












          • $begingroup$
            Awesome! Thanks alot. My textbook must have a type because it claims that an infinite union of countable sets is countable.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao What book is that, and what page is the typo on, so we can all correct it in our copies?
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:52










          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Are you sure the textbook doesn't say "countably infinite"?
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:58










          • $begingroup$
            Isnt countable and countably infinite the same? In the sense they are the same as saying a function is a bijection between N and A where A is any set. I have Stephen Abbott's second edition of Understanding Analysis. I am looking at theorem 1.5.8 ii on page 29.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:06












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Not entirely. Countable may also be finite. But even if you mean countable as "countably infinite", still, the terms infinite and countably infinite are certainly not the same.
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:09


















          • $begingroup$
            Awesome! Thanks alot. My textbook must have a type because it claims that an infinite union of countable sets is countable.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao What book is that, and what page is the typo on, so we can all correct it in our copies?
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:52










          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Are you sure the textbook doesn't say "countably infinite"?
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 8:58










          • $begingroup$
            Isnt countable and countably infinite the same? In the sense they are the same as saying a function is a bijection between N and A where A is any set. I have Stephen Abbott's second edition of Understanding Analysis. I am looking at theorem 1.5.8 ii on page 29.
            $endgroup$
            – benssiao
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:06












          • $begingroup$
            @benssiao Not entirely. Countable may also be finite. But even if you mean countable as "countably infinite", still, the terms infinite and countably infinite are certainly not the same.
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Jun 14 '16 at 9:09
















          $begingroup$
          Awesome! Thanks alot. My textbook must have a type because it claims that an infinite union of countable sets is countable.
          $endgroup$
          – benssiao
          Jun 14 '16 at 8:36






          $begingroup$
          Awesome! Thanks alot. My textbook must have a type because it claims that an infinite union of countable sets is countable.
          $endgroup$
          – benssiao
          Jun 14 '16 at 8:36














          $begingroup$
          @benssiao What book is that, and what page is the typo on, so we can all correct it in our copies?
          $endgroup$
          – bof
          Jun 14 '16 at 8:52




          $begingroup$
          @benssiao What book is that, and what page is the typo on, so we can all correct it in our copies?
          $endgroup$
          – bof
          Jun 14 '16 at 8:52












          $begingroup$
          @benssiao Are you sure the textbook doesn't say "countably infinite"?
          $endgroup$
          – 5xum
          Jun 14 '16 at 8:58




          $begingroup$
          @benssiao Are you sure the textbook doesn't say "countably infinite"?
          $endgroup$
          – 5xum
          Jun 14 '16 at 8:58












          $begingroup$
          Isnt countable and countably infinite the same? In the sense they are the same as saying a function is a bijection between N and A where A is any set. I have Stephen Abbott's second edition of Understanding Analysis. I am looking at theorem 1.5.8 ii on page 29.
          $endgroup$
          – benssiao
          Jun 14 '16 at 9:06






          $begingroup$
          Isnt countable and countably infinite the same? In the sense they are the same as saying a function is a bijection between N and A where A is any set. I have Stephen Abbott's second edition of Understanding Analysis. I am looking at theorem 1.5.8 ii on page 29.
          $endgroup$
          – benssiao
          Jun 14 '16 at 9:06














          $begingroup$
          @benssiao Not entirely. Countable may also be finite. But even if you mean countable as "countably infinite", still, the terms infinite and countably infinite are certainly not the same.
          $endgroup$
          – 5xum
          Jun 14 '16 at 9:09




          $begingroup$
          @benssiao Not entirely. Countable may also be finite. But even if you mean countable as "countably infinite", still, the terms infinite and countably infinite are certainly not the same.
          $endgroup$
          – 5xum
          Jun 14 '16 at 9:09


















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