Frattini subgroup of a subgroup












2












$begingroup$


I am doing an exercise for Frattini subgroups:



Let $G$ be a finite group and $N$ a normal subgroup of $G$. Show that there exists a subgroup $K$ of $G$ with $G=KN$ and $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



I have no idea what theorem/result would give the existence of such $K$? This $K$ looks similar to a complement to $N$ but I don't think it is indeed the complement. Or maybe I have to construct such a group?



Any hints/comments are appreciated! Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    I am doing an exercise for Frattini subgroups:



    Let $G$ be a finite group and $N$ a normal subgroup of $G$. Show that there exists a subgroup $K$ of $G$ with $G=KN$ and $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



    I have no idea what theorem/result would give the existence of such $K$? This $K$ looks similar to a complement to $N$ but I don't think it is indeed the complement. Or maybe I have to construct such a group?



    Any hints/comments are appreciated! Thanks!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I am doing an exercise for Frattini subgroups:



      Let $G$ be a finite group and $N$ a normal subgroup of $G$. Show that there exists a subgroup $K$ of $G$ with $G=KN$ and $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



      I have no idea what theorem/result would give the existence of such $K$? This $K$ looks similar to a complement to $N$ but I don't think it is indeed the complement. Or maybe I have to construct such a group?



      Any hints/comments are appreciated! Thanks!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am doing an exercise for Frattini subgroups:



      Let $G$ be a finite group and $N$ a normal subgroup of $G$. Show that there exists a subgroup $K$ of $G$ with $G=KN$ and $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



      I have no idea what theorem/result would give the existence of such $K$? This $K$ looks similar to a complement to $N$ but I don't think it is indeed the complement. Or maybe I have to construct such a group?



      Any hints/comments are appreciated! Thanks!







      group-theory finite-groups frattini-subgroup






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 28 at 19:22









      the_fox

      2,90031538




      2,90031538










      asked Oct 31 '18 at 21:54









      Zheng XiaoZheng Xiao

      37719




      37719






















          1 Answer
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          2












          $begingroup$

          Consider the set of supplements to $N$ in $G$. That is, let
          $$mathcal{X} = {H leq G : HN = G}.$$
          Clearly $mathcal{X}$ is non-empty because $G in mathcal{X}$. Now let $K$ be a minimal element of $mathcal{X}$, in the sense that $K$ does not contain properly any other element from $mathcal{X}$. By definition of $mathcal{X}$ we have $KN = G$. Now let $M$ be a maximal subgroup of $K$. We argue that $K cap N leq M$. Once we have proved that, it will follow that every maximal subgroup of $K$ contains $K cap N$, thus $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



          Suppose for a contradiction that $K cap N$ is not a subgroup of $M$. Since $N$ is normal in $G$, $K cap N$ is normal in $K$. So $K cap N$ permutes with every subgroup of $K$, thus also with $M$. So $(K cap N)M$ is a subgroup of $K$ which contains $M$ properly. Therefore $K = (K cap N)M$. Now notice that
          $$G = KN = (K cap N)MN = (K cap N)NM = NM = MN,$$
          so $M$ supplements $N$ in $G$, against the minimal choice of $K$.
          We see, therefore, that $K cap N$ is contained in every maximal subgroup of $K$ and so $K cap N leq Phi(K)$, as wanted.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much! Your proof is easy to understand.
            $endgroup$
            – Zheng Xiao
            Nov 1 '18 at 3:06












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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

          oldest

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          2












          $begingroup$

          Consider the set of supplements to $N$ in $G$. That is, let
          $$mathcal{X} = {H leq G : HN = G}.$$
          Clearly $mathcal{X}$ is non-empty because $G in mathcal{X}$. Now let $K$ be a minimal element of $mathcal{X}$, in the sense that $K$ does not contain properly any other element from $mathcal{X}$. By definition of $mathcal{X}$ we have $KN = G$. Now let $M$ be a maximal subgroup of $K$. We argue that $K cap N leq M$. Once we have proved that, it will follow that every maximal subgroup of $K$ contains $K cap N$, thus $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



          Suppose for a contradiction that $K cap N$ is not a subgroup of $M$. Since $N$ is normal in $G$, $K cap N$ is normal in $K$. So $K cap N$ permutes with every subgroup of $K$, thus also with $M$. So $(K cap N)M$ is a subgroup of $K$ which contains $M$ properly. Therefore $K = (K cap N)M$. Now notice that
          $$G = KN = (K cap N)MN = (K cap N)NM = NM = MN,$$
          so $M$ supplements $N$ in $G$, against the minimal choice of $K$.
          We see, therefore, that $K cap N$ is contained in every maximal subgroup of $K$ and so $K cap N leq Phi(K)$, as wanted.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much! Your proof is easy to understand.
            $endgroup$
            – Zheng Xiao
            Nov 1 '18 at 3:06
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Consider the set of supplements to $N$ in $G$. That is, let
          $$mathcal{X} = {H leq G : HN = G}.$$
          Clearly $mathcal{X}$ is non-empty because $G in mathcal{X}$. Now let $K$ be a minimal element of $mathcal{X}$, in the sense that $K$ does not contain properly any other element from $mathcal{X}$. By definition of $mathcal{X}$ we have $KN = G$. Now let $M$ be a maximal subgroup of $K$. We argue that $K cap N leq M$. Once we have proved that, it will follow that every maximal subgroup of $K$ contains $K cap N$, thus $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



          Suppose for a contradiction that $K cap N$ is not a subgroup of $M$. Since $N$ is normal in $G$, $K cap N$ is normal in $K$. So $K cap N$ permutes with every subgroup of $K$, thus also with $M$. So $(K cap N)M$ is a subgroup of $K$ which contains $M$ properly. Therefore $K = (K cap N)M$. Now notice that
          $$G = KN = (K cap N)MN = (K cap N)NM = NM = MN,$$
          so $M$ supplements $N$ in $G$, against the minimal choice of $K$.
          We see, therefore, that $K cap N$ is contained in every maximal subgroup of $K$ and so $K cap N leq Phi(K)$, as wanted.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much! Your proof is easy to understand.
            $endgroup$
            – Zheng Xiao
            Nov 1 '18 at 3:06














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Consider the set of supplements to $N$ in $G$. That is, let
          $$mathcal{X} = {H leq G : HN = G}.$$
          Clearly $mathcal{X}$ is non-empty because $G in mathcal{X}$. Now let $K$ be a minimal element of $mathcal{X}$, in the sense that $K$ does not contain properly any other element from $mathcal{X}$. By definition of $mathcal{X}$ we have $KN = G$. Now let $M$ be a maximal subgroup of $K$. We argue that $K cap N leq M$. Once we have proved that, it will follow that every maximal subgroup of $K$ contains $K cap N$, thus $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



          Suppose for a contradiction that $K cap N$ is not a subgroup of $M$. Since $N$ is normal in $G$, $K cap N$ is normal in $K$. So $K cap N$ permutes with every subgroup of $K$, thus also with $M$. So $(K cap N)M$ is a subgroup of $K$ which contains $M$ properly. Therefore $K = (K cap N)M$. Now notice that
          $$G = KN = (K cap N)MN = (K cap N)NM = NM = MN,$$
          so $M$ supplements $N$ in $G$, against the minimal choice of $K$.
          We see, therefore, that $K cap N$ is contained in every maximal subgroup of $K$ and so $K cap N leq Phi(K)$, as wanted.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Consider the set of supplements to $N$ in $G$. That is, let
          $$mathcal{X} = {H leq G : HN = G}.$$
          Clearly $mathcal{X}$ is non-empty because $G in mathcal{X}$. Now let $K$ be a minimal element of $mathcal{X}$, in the sense that $K$ does not contain properly any other element from $mathcal{X}$. By definition of $mathcal{X}$ we have $KN = G$. Now let $M$ be a maximal subgroup of $K$. We argue that $K cap N leq M$. Once we have proved that, it will follow that every maximal subgroup of $K$ contains $K cap N$, thus $K cap N leq Phi(K)$.



          Suppose for a contradiction that $K cap N$ is not a subgroup of $M$. Since $N$ is normal in $G$, $K cap N$ is normal in $K$. So $K cap N$ permutes with every subgroup of $K$, thus also with $M$. So $(K cap N)M$ is a subgroup of $K$ which contains $M$ properly. Therefore $K = (K cap N)M$. Now notice that
          $$G = KN = (K cap N)MN = (K cap N)NM = NM = MN,$$
          so $M$ supplements $N$ in $G$, against the minimal choice of $K$.
          We see, therefore, that $K cap N$ is contained in every maximal subgroup of $K$ and so $K cap N leq Phi(K)$, as wanted.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Oct 31 '18 at 22:53

























          answered Oct 31 '18 at 22:15









          the_foxthe_fox

          2,90031538




          2,90031538








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much! Your proof is easy to understand.
            $endgroup$
            – Zheng Xiao
            Nov 1 '18 at 3:06














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much! Your proof is easy to understand.
            $endgroup$
            – Zheng Xiao
            Nov 1 '18 at 3:06








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Thank you very much! Your proof is easy to understand.
          $endgroup$
          – Zheng Xiao
          Nov 1 '18 at 3:06




          $begingroup$
          Thank you very much! Your proof is easy to understand.
          $endgroup$
          – Zheng Xiao
          Nov 1 '18 at 3:06


















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