How to evaluate $int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^{2}(theta)}dtheta$












1














I'm pretty sure the idea is to interpret this integral as a contour integral over a closed path in the complex plane.
$$I = int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^{2}(theta)}dtheta$$



We take $C = {z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1}$, which is positively oriented.



$$z = e^{itheta}$$
$$frac{dz}{dtheta} = ie^{itheta} = iz rightarrow dtheta = frac{dz}{iz} $$
$$sin(theta) = frac{e^{itheta}-e^{-itheta}}{2i} = frac{z-z^{-1}}{2i} $$



$$sin^2(theta) = frac{z^2 - 2zz^{-1} + z^{-2}}{(2i)^2} = frac{z^2 - 2 + z^{-2}}{-4} $$



After some manipulation:



$$I = frac{4}{i}oint_{C}frac{z}{-z^4+6z^2-1}dz$$



After that one should obtain the roots of the polynomial in the denominator and solve the integral either by residues or using Cauchy's formula. However, I'm not sure how to find the roots. This was in the context of an exam, so I assume something must be wrong if the roots are too difficult to find, or if they are not "nice" numbers.



Is there a more clever way of going about this? I tried calculating the residue at infinity, but $frac{1}{z^{2}}f(frac{1}{z})$ yields the exact same function and it doesn't get any easier.



Thanks.










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  • 1




    $z^4 = (z^2)^2$ so you can use the quadratic formula to get the roots.
    – Winther
    Nov 21 '18 at 0:19






  • 1




    Note that $z^4 - 6z^2 + 1 = (z^2)^2 - 6(z^2) + 1$ can be factored using the quadratic formula. Alternatively, $u = z^2$ works as a $u$-substitution.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 21 '18 at 0:20






  • 1




    You could write $I = int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{1 + frac{1}{2} (1 - cos(2theta))} dtheta = int_0^{2pi} frac{2}{3 - cos(2theta)}dtheta = int_0^{4pi} frac{1}{3 - cos alpha}dalpha = 2 int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{3-cos alpha}dalpha$ and then evaluate that by contour integration.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 21 '18 at 1:58


















1














I'm pretty sure the idea is to interpret this integral as a contour integral over a closed path in the complex plane.
$$I = int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^{2}(theta)}dtheta$$



We take $C = {z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1}$, which is positively oriented.



$$z = e^{itheta}$$
$$frac{dz}{dtheta} = ie^{itheta} = iz rightarrow dtheta = frac{dz}{iz} $$
$$sin(theta) = frac{e^{itheta}-e^{-itheta}}{2i} = frac{z-z^{-1}}{2i} $$



$$sin^2(theta) = frac{z^2 - 2zz^{-1} + z^{-2}}{(2i)^2} = frac{z^2 - 2 + z^{-2}}{-4} $$



After some manipulation:



$$I = frac{4}{i}oint_{C}frac{z}{-z^4+6z^2-1}dz$$



After that one should obtain the roots of the polynomial in the denominator and solve the integral either by residues or using Cauchy's formula. However, I'm not sure how to find the roots. This was in the context of an exam, so I assume something must be wrong if the roots are too difficult to find, or if they are not "nice" numbers.



Is there a more clever way of going about this? I tried calculating the residue at infinity, but $frac{1}{z^{2}}f(frac{1}{z})$ yields the exact same function and it doesn't get any easier.



Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    $z^4 = (z^2)^2$ so you can use the quadratic formula to get the roots.
    – Winther
    Nov 21 '18 at 0:19






  • 1




    Note that $z^4 - 6z^2 + 1 = (z^2)^2 - 6(z^2) + 1$ can be factored using the quadratic formula. Alternatively, $u = z^2$ works as a $u$-substitution.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 21 '18 at 0:20






  • 1




    You could write $I = int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{1 + frac{1}{2} (1 - cos(2theta))} dtheta = int_0^{2pi} frac{2}{3 - cos(2theta)}dtheta = int_0^{4pi} frac{1}{3 - cos alpha}dalpha = 2 int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{3-cos alpha}dalpha$ and then evaluate that by contour integration.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 21 '18 at 1:58
















1












1








1


1





I'm pretty sure the idea is to interpret this integral as a contour integral over a closed path in the complex plane.
$$I = int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^{2}(theta)}dtheta$$



We take $C = {z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1}$, which is positively oriented.



$$z = e^{itheta}$$
$$frac{dz}{dtheta} = ie^{itheta} = iz rightarrow dtheta = frac{dz}{iz} $$
$$sin(theta) = frac{e^{itheta}-e^{-itheta}}{2i} = frac{z-z^{-1}}{2i} $$



$$sin^2(theta) = frac{z^2 - 2zz^{-1} + z^{-2}}{(2i)^2} = frac{z^2 - 2 + z^{-2}}{-4} $$



After some manipulation:



$$I = frac{4}{i}oint_{C}frac{z}{-z^4+6z^2-1}dz$$



After that one should obtain the roots of the polynomial in the denominator and solve the integral either by residues or using Cauchy's formula. However, I'm not sure how to find the roots. This was in the context of an exam, so I assume something must be wrong if the roots are too difficult to find, or if they are not "nice" numbers.



Is there a more clever way of going about this? I tried calculating the residue at infinity, but $frac{1}{z^{2}}f(frac{1}{z})$ yields the exact same function and it doesn't get any easier.



Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question















I'm pretty sure the idea is to interpret this integral as a contour integral over a closed path in the complex plane.
$$I = int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^{2}(theta)}dtheta$$



We take $C = {z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1}$, which is positively oriented.



$$z = e^{itheta}$$
$$frac{dz}{dtheta} = ie^{itheta} = iz rightarrow dtheta = frac{dz}{iz} $$
$$sin(theta) = frac{e^{itheta}-e^{-itheta}}{2i} = frac{z-z^{-1}}{2i} $$



$$sin^2(theta) = frac{z^2 - 2zz^{-1} + z^{-2}}{(2i)^2} = frac{z^2 - 2 + z^{-2}}{-4} $$



After some manipulation:



$$I = frac{4}{i}oint_{C}frac{z}{-z^4+6z^2-1}dz$$



After that one should obtain the roots of the polynomial in the denominator and solve the integral either by residues or using Cauchy's formula. However, I'm not sure how to find the roots. This was in the context of an exam, so I assume something must be wrong if the roots are too difficult to find, or if they are not "nice" numbers.



Is there a more clever way of going about this? I tried calculating the residue at infinity, but $frac{1}{z^{2}}f(frac{1}{z})$ yields the exact same function and it doesn't get any easier.



Thanks.







integration complex-analysis definite-integrals






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edited Nov 21 '18 at 0:26









Bernard

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asked Nov 21 '18 at 0:14









Juanma Eloy

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  • 1




    $z^4 = (z^2)^2$ so you can use the quadratic formula to get the roots.
    – Winther
    Nov 21 '18 at 0:19






  • 1




    Note that $z^4 - 6z^2 + 1 = (z^2)^2 - 6(z^2) + 1$ can be factored using the quadratic formula. Alternatively, $u = z^2$ works as a $u$-substitution.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 21 '18 at 0:20






  • 1




    You could write $I = int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{1 + frac{1}{2} (1 - cos(2theta))} dtheta = int_0^{2pi} frac{2}{3 - cos(2theta)}dtheta = int_0^{4pi} frac{1}{3 - cos alpha}dalpha = 2 int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{3-cos alpha}dalpha$ and then evaluate that by contour integration.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 21 '18 at 1:58
















  • 1




    $z^4 = (z^2)^2$ so you can use the quadratic formula to get the roots.
    – Winther
    Nov 21 '18 at 0:19






  • 1




    Note that $z^4 - 6z^2 + 1 = (z^2)^2 - 6(z^2) + 1$ can be factored using the quadratic formula. Alternatively, $u = z^2$ works as a $u$-substitution.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 21 '18 at 0:20






  • 1




    You could write $I = int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{1 + frac{1}{2} (1 - cos(2theta))} dtheta = int_0^{2pi} frac{2}{3 - cos(2theta)}dtheta = int_0^{4pi} frac{1}{3 - cos alpha}dalpha = 2 int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{3-cos alpha}dalpha$ and then evaluate that by contour integration.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 21 '18 at 1:58










1




1




$z^4 = (z^2)^2$ so you can use the quadratic formula to get the roots.
– Winther
Nov 21 '18 at 0:19




$z^4 = (z^2)^2$ so you can use the quadratic formula to get the roots.
– Winther
Nov 21 '18 at 0:19




1




1




Note that $z^4 - 6z^2 + 1 = (z^2)^2 - 6(z^2) + 1$ can be factored using the quadratic formula. Alternatively, $u = z^2$ works as a $u$-substitution.
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 21 '18 at 0:20




Note that $z^4 - 6z^2 + 1 = (z^2)^2 - 6(z^2) + 1$ can be factored using the quadratic formula. Alternatively, $u = z^2$ works as a $u$-substitution.
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 21 '18 at 0:20




1




1




You could write $I = int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{1 + frac{1}{2} (1 - cos(2theta))} dtheta = int_0^{2pi} frac{2}{3 - cos(2theta)}dtheta = int_0^{4pi} frac{1}{3 - cos alpha}dalpha = 2 int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{3-cos alpha}dalpha$ and then evaluate that by contour integration.
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 21 '18 at 1:58






You could write $I = int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{1 + frac{1}{2} (1 - cos(2theta))} dtheta = int_0^{2pi} frac{2}{3 - cos(2theta)}dtheta = int_0^{4pi} frac{1}{3 - cos alpha}dalpha = 2 int_0^{2pi} frac{1}{3-cos alpha}dalpha$ and then evaluate that by contour integration.
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 21 '18 at 1:58












3 Answers
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5














Contour integration is a chance, but not the only one. For instance, symmetry gives
$$ int_{0}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+cos^2theta}stackrel{thetamapstoarctan u}{=}4int_{0}^{+infty}frac{du}{2+u^2} $$
and the last integral clearly equals $color{red}{pisqrt{2}}$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • “clearly” not so clear
    – Lucas Henrique
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:29










  • @LucasHenrique: well, $int_{a}^{b}frac{dx}{1+x^2}=arctan(b)-arctan(a)$ and by letting $u=sqrt{2},x$...
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:42





















3














$$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+sin^2x}$$
Recall that $sin x=frac{tan x}{sec x}$:
$$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+frac{tan^2x}{sec^2x}}$$
$$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{sec^2x+tan^2x}$$
$$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{1+2tan^2x}$$
$u=tan x$:
$$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}u}{1+2u^2}$$
$u=frac1{sqrt{2}}tan w$:
$$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}intfrac{sec^2wmathrm{d}w}{1+tan^2w}$$
$$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}w$$
$$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}arctansqrt{2}tan x$$
$$Ibigg|_0^{2pi}=pisqrt2$$






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    2














    How about using Weierstrauss substitution.
    $$I=int_0^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^2(x)}dx$$
    $t=tanfrac{x}{2}$ so it becomes:
    $$I=4int_0^inftyfrac{1}{1+left(frac{2t}{1+t^2}right)^2}frac{dt}{1+t^2}=4int_0^inftyfrac{1+t^2}{(1+t^2)^2+(2t)^2}dt$$
    $$=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{t^4+6t^2+1}dt=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}dt$$
    now using partial fractions:
    $$frac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}=frac{At+B}{t^2+3-2sqrt{2}}+frac{Ct+D}{t^2+3+2sqrt{2}}$$
    giving us the simultaneous equations:
    $$A+C=0$$$$B+D=1$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})A+(3-2sqrt{2})C=0$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})B+(3-2sqrt{2})D=1$$
    Both $A$ and $C$ come out as $0$ so some form of $tan$ substitution can be used to solve the two integrals that are formed.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      You can simplify the algebra by first using the cosine double angle formula $sin^2(x) = (1/2)(1 - cos(2x))$ and then a change of formula $u = 2x$ and then apply the Weierstrass substitution.
      – DavidG
      Nov 21 '18 at 4:20













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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    5














    Contour integration is a chance, but not the only one. For instance, symmetry gives
    $$ int_{0}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+cos^2theta}stackrel{thetamapstoarctan u}{=}4int_{0}^{+infty}frac{du}{2+u^2} $$
    and the last integral clearly equals $color{red}{pisqrt{2}}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • “clearly” not so clear
      – Lucas Henrique
      Nov 21 '18 at 8:29










    • @LucasHenrique: well, $int_{a}^{b}frac{dx}{1+x^2}=arctan(b)-arctan(a)$ and by letting $u=sqrt{2},x$...
      – Jack D'Aurizio
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:42


















    5














    Contour integration is a chance, but not the only one. For instance, symmetry gives
    $$ int_{0}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+cos^2theta}stackrel{thetamapstoarctan u}{=}4int_{0}^{+infty}frac{du}{2+u^2} $$
    and the last integral clearly equals $color{red}{pisqrt{2}}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • “clearly” not so clear
      – Lucas Henrique
      Nov 21 '18 at 8:29










    • @LucasHenrique: well, $int_{a}^{b}frac{dx}{1+x^2}=arctan(b)-arctan(a)$ and by letting $u=sqrt{2},x$...
      – Jack D'Aurizio
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:42
















    5












    5








    5






    Contour integration is a chance, but not the only one. For instance, symmetry gives
    $$ int_{0}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+cos^2theta}stackrel{thetamapstoarctan u}{=}4int_{0}^{+infty}frac{du}{2+u^2} $$
    and the last integral clearly equals $color{red}{pisqrt{2}}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    Contour integration is a chance, but not the only one. For instance, symmetry gives
    $$ int_{0}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+sin^2theta}=4int_{0}^{pi/2}frac{dtheta}{1+cos^2theta}stackrel{thetamapstoarctan u}{=}4int_{0}^{+infty}frac{du}{2+u^2} $$
    and the last integral clearly equals $color{red}{pisqrt{2}}$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 21 '18 at 0:35









    Jack D'Aurizio

    287k33280657




    287k33280657












    • “clearly” not so clear
      – Lucas Henrique
      Nov 21 '18 at 8:29










    • @LucasHenrique: well, $int_{a}^{b}frac{dx}{1+x^2}=arctan(b)-arctan(a)$ and by letting $u=sqrt{2},x$...
      – Jack D'Aurizio
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:42




















    • “clearly” not so clear
      – Lucas Henrique
      Nov 21 '18 at 8:29










    • @LucasHenrique: well, $int_{a}^{b}frac{dx}{1+x^2}=arctan(b)-arctan(a)$ and by letting $u=sqrt{2},x$...
      – Jack D'Aurizio
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:42


















    “clearly” not so clear
    – Lucas Henrique
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:29




    “clearly” not so clear
    – Lucas Henrique
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:29












    @LucasHenrique: well, $int_{a}^{b}frac{dx}{1+x^2}=arctan(b)-arctan(a)$ and by letting $u=sqrt{2},x$...
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:42






    @LucasHenrique: well, $int_{a}^{b}frac{dx}{1+x^2}=arctan(b)-arctan(a)$ and by letting $u=sqrt{2},x$...
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:42













    3














    $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+sin^2x}$$
    Recall that $sin x=frac{tan x}{sec x}$:
    $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+frac{tan^2x}{sec^2x}}$$
    $$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{sec^2x+tan^2x}$$
    $$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{1+2tan^2x}$$
    $u=tan x$:
    $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}u}{1+2u^2}$$
    $u=frac1{sqrt{2}}tan w$:
    $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}intfrac{sec^2wmathrm{d}w}{1+tan^2w}$$
    $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}w$$
    $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}arctansqrt{2}tan x$$
    $$Ibigg|_0^{2pi}=pisqrt2$$






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      3














      $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+sin^2x}$$
      Recall that $sin x=frac{tan x}{sec x}$:
      $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+frac{tan^2x}{sec^2x}}$$
      $$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{sec^2x+tan^2x}$$
      $$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{1+2tan^2x}$$
      $u=tan x$:
      $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}u}{1+2u^2}$$
      $u=frac1{sqrt{2}}tan w$:
      $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}intfrac{sec^2wmathrm{d}w}{1+tan^2w}$$
      $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}w$$
      $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}arctansqrt{2}tan x$$
      $$Ibigg|_0^{2pi}=pisqrt2$$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        3












        3








        3






        $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+sin^2x}$$
        Recall that $sin x=frac{tan x}{sec x}$:
        $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+frac{tan^2x}{sec^2x}}$$
        $$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{sec^2x+tan^2x}$$
        $$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{1+2tan^2x}$$
        $u=tan x$:
        $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}u}{1+2u^2}$$
        $u=frac1{sqrt{2}}tan w$:
        $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}intfrac{sec^2wmathrm{d}w}{1+tan^2w}$$
        $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}w$$
        $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}arctansqrt{2}tan x$$
        $$Ibigg|_0^{2pi}=pisqrt2$$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+sin^2x}$$
        Recall that $sin x=frac{tan x}{sec x}$:
        $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}x}{1+frac{tan^2x}{sec^2x}}$$
        $$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{sec^2x+tan^2x}$$
        $$I=intfrac{sec^2x mathrm{d}x}{1+2tan^2x}$$
        $u=tan x$:
        $$I=intfrac{mathrm{d}u}{1+2u^2}$$
        $u=frac1{sqrt{2}}tan w$:
        $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}intfrac{sec^2wmathrm{d}w}{1+tan^2w}$$
        $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}w$$
        $$I=frac1{sqrt{2}}arctansqrt{2}tan x$$
        $$Ibigg|_0^{2pi}=pisqrt2$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 21 '18 at 1:49









        clathratus

        3,243331




        3,243331























            2














            How about using Weierstrauss substitution.
            $$I=int_0^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^2(x)}dx$$
            $t=tanfrac{x}{2}$ so it becomes:
            $$I=4int_0^inftyfrac{1}{1+left(frac{2t}{1+t^2}right)^2}frac{dt}{1+t^2}=4int_0^inftyfrac{1+t^2}{(1+t^2)^2+(2t)^2}dt$$
            $$=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{t^4+6t^2+1}dt=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}dt$$
            now using partial fractions:
            $$frac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}=frac{At+B}{t^2+3-2sqrt{2}}+frac{Ct+D}{t^2+3+2sqrt{2}}$$
            giving us the simultaneous equations:
            $$A+C=0$$$$B+D=1$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})A+(3-2sqrt{2})C=0$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})B+(3-2sqrt{2})D=1$$
            Both $A$ and $C$ come out as $0$ so some form of $tan$ substitution can be used to solve the two integrals that are formed.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              You can simplify the algebra by first using the cosine double angle formula $sin^2(x) = (1/2)(1 - cos(2x))$ and then a change of formula $u = 2x$ and then apply the Weierstrass substitution.
              – DavidG
              Nov 21 '18 at 4:20


















            2














            How about using Weierstrauss substitution.
            $$I=int_0^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^2(x)}dx$$
            $t=tanfrac{x}{2}$ so it becomes:
            $$I=4int_0^inftyfrac{1}{1+left(frac{2t}{1+t^2}right)^2}frac{dt}{1+t^2}=4int_0^inftyfrac{1+t^2}{(1+t^2)^2+(2t)^2}dt$$
            $$=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{t^4+6t^2+1}dt=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}dt$$
            now using partial fractions:
            $$frac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}=frac{At+B}{t^2+3-2sqrt{2}}+frac{Ct+D}{t^2+3+2sqrt{2}}$$
            giving us the simultaneous equations:
            $$A+C=0$$$$B+D=1$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})A+(3-2sqrt{2})C=0$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})B+(3-2sqrt{2})D=1$$
            Both $A$ and $C$ come out as $0$ so some form of $tan$ substitution can be used to solve the two integrals that are formed.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              You can simplify the algebra by first using the cosine double angle formula $sin^2(x) = (1/2)(1 - cos(2x))$ and then a change of formula $u = 2x$ and then apply the Weierstrass substitution.
              – DavidG
              Nov 21 '18 at 4:20
















            2












            2








            2






            How about using Weierstrauss substitution.
            $$I=int_0^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^2(x)}dx$$
            $t=tanfrac{x}{2}$ so it becomes:
            $$I=4int_0^inftyfrac{1}{1+left(frac{2t}{1+t^2}right)^2}frac{dt}{1+t^2}=4int_0^inftyfrac{1+t^2}{(1+t^2)^2+(2t)^2}dt$$
            $$=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{t^4+6t^2+1}dt=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}dt$$
            now using partial fractions:
            $$frac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}=frac{At+B}{t^2+3-2sqrt{2}}+frac{Ct+D}{t^2+3+2sqrt{2}}$$
            giving us the simultaneous equations:
            $$A+C=0$$$$B+D=1$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})A+(3-2sqrt{2})C=0$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})B+(3-2sqrt{2})D=1$$
            Both $A$ and $C$ come out as $0$ so some form of $tan$ substitution can be used to solve the two integrals that are formed.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            How about using Weierstrauss substitution.
            $$I=int_0^{2pi}frac{1}{1+sin^2(x)}dx$$
            $t=tanfrac{x}{2}$ so it becomes:
            $$I=4int_0^inftyfrac{1}{1+left(frac{2t}{1+t^2}right)^2}frac{dt}{1+t^2}=4int_0^inftyfrac{1+t^2}{(1+t^2)^2+(2t)^2}dt$$
            $$=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{t^4+6t^2+1}dt=4int_0^inftyfrac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}dt$$
            now using partial fractions:
            $$frac{t^2+1}{(t^2+3-2sqrt{2})(t^2+3+2sqrt{2})}=frac{At+B}{t^2+3-2sqrt{2}}+frac{Ct+D}{t^2+3+2sqrt{2}}$$
            giving us the simultaneous equations:
            $$A+C=0$$$$B+D=1$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})A+(3-2sqrt{2})C=0$$$$(3+2sqrt{2})B+(3-2sqrt{2})D=1$$
            Both $A$ and $C$ come out as $0$ so some form of $tan$ substitution can be used to solve the two integrals that are formed.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 21 '18 at 3:34









            Henry Lee

            1,773218




            1,773218








            • 1




              You can simplify the algebra by first using the cosine double angle formula $sin^2(x) = (1/2)(1 - cos(2x))$ and then a change of formula $u = 2x$ and then apply the Weierstrass substitution.
              – DavidG
              Nov 21 '18 at 4:20
















            • 1




              You can simplify the algebra by first using the cosine double angle formula $sin^2(x) = (1/2)(1 - cos(2x))$ and then a change of formula $u = 2x$ and then apply the Weierstrass substitution.
              – DavidG
              Nov 21 '18 at 4:20










            1




            1




            You can simplify the algebra by first using the cosine double angle formula $sin^2(x) = (1/2)(1 - cos(2x))$ and then a change of formula $u = 2x$ and then apply the Weierstrass substitution.
            – DavidG
            Nov 21 '18 at 4:20






            You can simplify the algebra by first using the cosine double angle formula $sin^2(x) = (1/2)(1 - cos(2x))$ and then a change of formula $u = 2x$ and then apply the Weierstrass substitution.
            – DavidG
            Nov 21 '18 at 4:20




















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