I heard that the empty set $emptyset$ is bounded. But I think this statement is not correct.












1












$begingroup$


In Rudin's "Principles of Mathematical Analysis", there is the following definition of bounded.




Definition: Suppose $S$ is an ordered set, and $E subset S$. If there exists a $beta in S$ such that $x leq beta$ for every $x in E$, we say that $E$ is bounded above, and call $beta$ an upper bound of $E$. Lower bounds are defined in the same way(with $geq$ in place of $leq$).




Let $S = emptyset$.

Let $E = emptyset$.

Then, there exists no $beta in S$ such that $x leq beta$ for every $x in E$.

So, in this case, I think $E (subset S)$ is not bounded above.



Am I correct or not?



Isn't $emptyset$ an orderd set?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $S$ is empty then indeed it has no subsets that are bounded above, But IMV that is no reason to say that $S$ is not an ordered set. There are also non-empty sets endowed with an order that have no subsets that are bounded above.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 10:20


















1












$begingroup$


In Rudin's "Principles of Mathematical Analysis", there is the following definition of bounded.




Definition: Suppose $S$ is an ordered set, and $E subset S$. If there exists a $beta in S$ such that $x leq beta$ for every $x in E$, we say that $E$ is bounded above, and call $beta$ an upper bound of $E$. Lower bounds are defined in the same way(with $geq$ in place of $leq$).




Let $S = emptyset$.

Let $E = emptyset$.

Then, there exists no $beta in S$ such that $x leq beta$ for every $x in E$.

So, in this case, I think $E (subset S)$ is not bounded above.



Am I correct or not?



Isn't $emptyset$ an orderd set?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $S$ is empty then indeed it has no subsets that are bounded above, But IMV that is no reason to say that $S$ is not an ordered set. There are also non-empty sets endowed with an order that have no subsets that are bounded above.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 10:20
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


In Rudin's "Principles of Mathematical Analysis", there is the following definition of bounded.




Definition: Suppose $S$ is an ordered set, and $E subset S$. If there exists a $beta in S$ such that $x leq beta$ for every $x in E$, we say that $E$ is bounded above, and call $beta$ an upper bound of $E$. Lower bounds are defined in the same way(with $geq$ in place of $leq$).




Let $S = emptyset$.

Let $E = emptyset$.

Then, there exists no $beta in S$ such that $x leq beta$ for every $x in E$.

So, in this case, I think $E (subset S)$ is not bounded above.



Am I correct or not?



Isn't $emptyset$ an orderd set?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




In Rudin's "Principles of Mathematical Analysis", there is the following definition of bounded.




Definition: Suppose $S$ is an ordered set, and $E subset S$. If there exists a $beta in S$ such that $x leq beta$ for every $x in E$, we say that $E$ is bounded above, and call $beta$ an upper bound of $E$. Lower bounds are defined in the same way(with $geq$ in place of $leq$).




Let $S = emptyset$.

Let $E = emptyset$.

Then, there exists no $beta in S$ such that $x leq beta$ for every $x in E$.

So, in this case, I think $E (subset S)$ is not bounded above.



Am I correct or not?



Isn't $emptyset$ an orderd set?







elementary-set-theory order-theory upper-lower-bounds






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 19 at 8:48







tchappy ha

















asked Jan 19 at 8:41









tchappy hatchappy ha

767412




767412












  • $begingroup$
    If $S$ is empty then indeed it has no subsets that are bounded above, But IMV that is no reason to say that $S$ is not an ordered set. There are also non-empty sets endowed with an order that have no subsets that are bounded above.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 10:20




















  • $begingroup$
    If $S$ is empty then indeed it has no subsets that are bounded above, But IMV that is no reason to say that $S$ is not an ordered set. There are also non-empty sets endowed with an order that have no subsets that are bounded above.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 10:20


















$begingroup$
If $S$ is empty then indeed it has no subsets that are bounded above, But IMV that is no reason to say that $S$ is not an ordered set. There are also non-empty sets endowed with an order that have no subsets that are bounded above.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 19 at 10:20






$begingroup$
If $S$ is empty then indeed it has no subsets that are bounded above, But IMV that is no reason to say that $S$ is not an ordered set. There are also non-empty sets endowed with an order that have no subsets that are bounded above.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 19 at 10:20












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Being bounded is relative to a given ordered set. If $S$ is empty, then indeed it is not bounded, which is just one more reason to agree that in general the empty set shouldn't be counted as a partial order. But if $S$ is non-empty, then the empty set is bounded, and every element is an upper and lower bound.



There is an analogy here with $(0,1)$. As a subset of itself, it is not bounded. There is no maximal element. But as a subset of $[0,1]$ or $Bbb R$ it is certainly bounded by $0$ and $1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, Asaf Karagila. Thank you for the nice example too.
    $endgroup$
    – tchappy ha
    Jan 19 at 8:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There also good reasons to maintain the empty set as partial order. It serves e.g. as initial object of the category of posets and makes a forgetful functor from sets to posets possible.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 9:57










  • $begingroup$
    @drhab: Yes, or when you consider ordinals. But we are "adult", so we know how to distinguish these situations.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Jan 19 at 12:35










  • $begingroup$
    Adults do not argue about that.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 16:58











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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active

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active

oldest

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5












$begingroup$

Being bounded is relative to a given ordered set. If $S$ is empty, then indeed it is not bounded, which is just one more reason to agree that in general the empty set shouldn't be counted as a partial order. But if $S$ is non-empty, then the empty set is bounded, and every element is an upper and lower bound.



There is an analogy here with $(0,1)$. As a subset of itself, it is not bounded. There is no maximal element. But as a subset of $[0,1]$ or $Bbb R$ it is certainly bounded by $0$ and $1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, Asaf Karagila. Thank you for the nice example too.
    $endgroup$
    – tchappy ha
    Jan 19 at 8:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There also good reasons to maintain the empty set as partial order. It serves e.g. as initial object of the category of posets and makes a forgetful functor from sets to posets possible.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 9:57










  • $begingroup$
    @drhab: Yes, or when you consider ordinals. But we are "adult", so we know how to distinguish these situations.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Jan 19 at 12:35










  • $begingroup$
    Adults do not argue about that.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 16:58
















5












$begingroup$

Being bounded is relative to a given ordered set. If $S$ is empty, then indeed it is not bounded, which is just one more reason to agree that in general the empty set shouldn't be counted as a partial order. But if $S$ is non-empty, then the empty set is bounded, and every element is an upper and lower bound.



There is an analogy here with $(0,1)$. As a subset of itself, it is not bounded. There is no maximal element. But as a subset of $[0,1]$ or $Bbb R$ it is certainly bounded by $0$ and $1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, Asaf Karagila. Thank you for the nice example too.
    $endgroup$
    – tchappy ha
    Jan 19 at 8:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There also good reasons to maintain the empty set as partial order. It serves e.g. as initial object of the category of posets and makes a forgetful functor from sets to posets possible.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 9:57










  • $begingroup$
    @drhab: Yes, or when you consider ordinals. But we are "adult", so we know how to distinguish these situations.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Jan 19 at 12:35










  • $begingroup$
    Adults do not argue about that.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 16:58














5












5








5





$begingroup$

Being bounded is relative to a given ordered set. If $S$ is empty, then indeed it is not bounded, which is just one more reason to agree that in general the empty set shouldn't be counted as a partial order. But if $S$ is non-empty, then the empty set is bounded, and every element is an upper and lower bound.



There is an analogy here with $(0,1)$. As a subset of itself, it is not bounded. There is no maximal element. But as a subset of $[0,1]$ or $Bbb R$ it is certainly bounded by $0$ and $1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Being bounded is relative to a given ordered set. If $S$ is empty, then indeed it is not bounded, which is just one more reason to agree that in general the empty set shouldn't be counted as a partial order. But if $S$ is non-empty, then the empty set is bounded, and every element is an upper and lower bound.



There is an analogy here with $(0,1)$. As a subset of itself, it is not bounded. There is no maximal element. But as a subset of $[0,1]$ or $Bbb R$ it is certainly bounded by $0$ and $1$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Feb 15 at 9:05









José Carlos Santos

164k22131234




164k22131234










answered Jan 19 at 8:49









Asaf KaragilaAsaf Karagila

305k33435766




305k33435766












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, Asaf Karagila. Thank you for the nice example too.
    $endgroup$
    – tchappy ha
    Jan 19 at 8:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There also good reasons to maintain the empty set as partial order. It serves e.g. as initial object of the category of posets and makes a forgetful functor from sets to posets possible.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 9:57










  • $begingroup$
    @drhab: Yes, or when you consider ordinals. But we are "adult", so we know how to distinguish these situations.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Jan 19 at 12:35










  • $begingroup$
    Adults do not argue about that.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 16:58


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, Asaf Karagila. Thank you for the nice example too.
    $endgroup$
    – tchappy ha
    Jan 19 at 8:53






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There also good reasons to maintain the empty set as partial order. It serves e.g. as initial object of the category of posets and makes a forgetful functor from sets to posets possible.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 9:57










  • $begingroup$
    @drhab: Yes, or when you consider ordinals. But we are "adult", so we know how to distinguish these situations.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Jan 19 at 12:35










  • $begingroup$
    Adults do not argue about that.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Jan 19 at 16:58
















$begingroup$
Thank you very much, Asaf Karagila. Thank you for the nice example too.
$endgroup$
– tchappy ha
Jan 19 at 8:53




$begingroup$
Thank you very much, Asaf Karagila. Thank you for the nice example too.
$endgroup$
– tchappy ha
Jan 19 at 8:53




1




1




$begingroup$
There also good reasons to maintain the empty set as partial order. It serves e.g. as initial object of the category of posets and makes a forgetful functor from sets to posets possible.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 19 at 9:57




$begingroup$
There also good reasons to maintain the empty set as partial order. It serves e.g. as initial object of the category of posets and makes a forgetful functor from sets to posets possible.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 19 at 9:57












$begingroup$
@drhab: Yes, or when you consider ordinals. But we are "adult", so we know how to distinguish these situations.
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Jan 19 at 12:35




$begingroup$
@drhab: Yes, or when you consider ordinals. But we are "adult", so we know how to distinguish these situations.
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Jan 19 at 12:35












$begingroup$
Adults do not argue about that.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 19 at 16:58




$begingroup$
Adults do not argue about that.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 19 at 16:58


















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