Image of polynomial in $F[x]$ under derivation












2












$begingroup$


Let $F$ be a field of characteristic zero and let $D$ be the formal polynomial differentiation map so that
$$D(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+....+a_nx^n)=a_1+2a_2x+3a_3x^2+....+na_nx^{n-1}$$
Find the image of $F[x]$ under $D$.



The answer is that the image of $F[x]$ under $D$ is $F[x]$, Im$(D)$



I understand as far as Im$(D)<F[x]$ (i.e., Im$(D)$ is a subring of $F[x]$) but I don't see why



Im$(D)=F[x]$. Can you guys please help?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    What is your question? Of course, every given polynomial is a derivation of some polynomial. Try with the monomials first.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 22 at 13:52








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Let $p = p_0 + p_1 x + p_2 x^2 + dots + p_k x^k$. Assume that $D(a_0 + a_1x + a_2 x^2 + dots + a_n x^n) = p$, substitute the definition of $D$, and compare corresponding powers of $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – lisyarus
    Jan 22 at 15:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think the main thing to observe and use is that $F$ contains (an isomorphic copy of) the rational numbers as its prime subfield, so you can divide by non-zero integers in $F$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lukas Geyer
    Jan 22 at 21:06






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Also, should $F$ have a positive characteristic, then $Im(D)$ will fail to be a subring. Therefore that claim may be less clear than you think in characteristic zero as well.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Jan 22 at 21:27












  • $begingroup$
    Can you also formally integrate a polynomial in this case?
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Jan 22 at 21:28
















2












$begingroup$


Let $F$ be a field of characteristic zero and let $D$ be the formal polynomial differentiation map so that
$$D(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+....+a_nx^n)=a_1+2a_2x+3a_3x^2+....+na_nx^{n-1}$$
Find the image of $F[x]$ under $D$.



The answer is that the image of $F[x]$ under $D$ is $F[x]$, Im$(D)$



I understand as far as Im$(D)<F[x]$ (i.e., Im$(D)$ is a subring of $F[x]$) but I don't see why



Im$(D)=F[x]$. Can you guys please help?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    What is your question? Of course, every given polynomial is a derivation of some polynomial. Try with the monomials first.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 22 at 13:52








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Let $p = p_0 + p_1 x + p_2 x^2 + dots + p_k x^k$. Assume that $D(a_0 + a_1x + a_2 x^2 + dots + a_n x^n) = p$, substitute the definition of $D$, and compare corresponding powers of $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – lisyarus
    Jan 22 at 15:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think the main thing to observe and use is that $F$ contains (an isomorphic copy of) the rational numbers as its prime subfield, so you can divide by non-zero integers in $F$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lukas Geyer
    Jan 22 at 21:06






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Also, should $F$ have a positive characteristic, then $Im(D)$ will fail to be a subring. Therefore that claim may be less clear than you think in characteristic zero as well.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Jan 22 at 21:27












  • $begingroup$
    Can you also formally integrate a polynomial in this case?
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Jan 22 at 21:28














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


Let $F$ be a field of characteristic zero and let $D$ be the formal polynomial differentiation map so that
$$D(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+....+a_nx^n)=a_1+2a_2x+3a_3x^2+....+na_nx^{n-1}$$
Find the image of $F[x]$ under $D$.



The answer is that the image of $F[x]$ under $D$ is $F[x]$, Im$(D)$



I understand as far as Im$(D)<F[x]$ (i.e., Im$(D)$ is a subring of $F[x]$) but I don't see why



Im$(D)=F[x]$. Can you guys please help?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $F$ be a field of characteristic zero and let $D$ be the formal polynomial differentiation map so that
$$D(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+....+a_nx^n)=a_1+2a_2x+3a_3x^2+....+na_nx^{n-1}$$
Find the image of $F[x]$ under $D$.



The answer is that the image of $F[x]$ under $D$ is $F[x]$, Im$(D)$



I understand as far as Im$(D)<F[x]$ (i.e., Im$(D)$ is a subring of $F[x]$) but I don't see why



Im$(D)=F[x]$. Can you guys please help?







abstract-algebra group-theory field-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 22 at 21:17









darij grinberg

11.1k33167




11.1k33167










asked Jan 22 at 13:51









MathQMathQ

112




112








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    What is your question? Of course, every given polynomial is a derivation of some polynomial. Try with the monomials first.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 22 at 13:52








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Let $p = p_0 + p_1 x + p_2 x^2 + dots + p_k x^k$. Assume that $D(a_0 + a_1x + a_2 x^2 + dots + a_n x^n) = p$, substitute the definition of $D$, and compare corresponding powers of $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – lisyarus
    Jan 22 at 15:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think the main thing to observe and use is that $F$ contains (an isomorphic copy of) the rational numbers as its prime subfield, so you can divide by non-zero integers in $F$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lukas Geyer
    Jan 22 at 21:06






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Also, should $F$ have a positive characteristic, then $Im(D)$ will fail to be a subring. Therefore that claim may be less clear than you think in characteristic zero as well.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Jan 22 at 21:27












  • $begingroup$
    Can you also formally integrate a polynomial in this case?
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Jan 22 at 21:28














  • 4




    $begingroup$
    What is your question? Of course, every given polynomial is a derivation of some polynomial. Try with the monomials first.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 22 at 13:52








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Let $p = p_0 + p_1 x + p_2 x^2 + dots + p_k x^k$. Assume that $D(a_0 + a_1x + a_2 x^2 + dots + a_n x^n) = p$, substitute the definition of $D$, and compare corresponding powers of $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – lisyarus
    Jan 22 at 15:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think the main thing to observe and use is that $F$ contains (an isomorphic copy of) the rational numbers as its prime subfield, so you can divide by non-zero integers in $F$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lukas Geyer
    Jan 22 at 21:06






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Also, should $F$ have a positive characteristic, then $Im(D)$ will fail to be a subring. Therefore that claim may be less clear than you think in characteristic zero as well.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Jan 22 at 21:27












  • $begingroup$
    Can you also formally integrate a polynomial in this case?
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Jan 22 at 21:28








4




4




$begingroup$
What is your question? Of course, every given polynomial is a derivation of some polynomial. Try with the monomials first.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 22 at 13:52






$begingroup$
What is your question? Of course, every given polynomial is a derivation of some polynomial. Try with the monomials first.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 22 at 13:52






1




1




$begingroup$
Let $p = p_0 + p_1 x + p_2 x^2 + dots + p_k x^k$. Assume that $D(a_0 + a_1x + a_2 x^2 + dots + a_n x^n) = p$, substitute the definition of $D$, and compare corresponding powers of $x$.
$endgroup$
– lisyarus
Jan 22 at 15:08




$begingroup$
Let $p = p_0 + p_1 x + p_2 x^2 + dots + p_k x^k$. Assume that $D(a_0 + a_1x + a_2 x^2 + dots + a_n x^n) = p$, substitute the definition of $D$, and compare corresponding powers of $x$.
$endgroup$
– lisyarus
Jan 22 at 15:08




1




1




$begingroup$
I think the main thing to observe and use is that $F$ contains (an isomorphic copy of) the rational numbers as its prime subfield, so you can divide by non-zero integers in $F$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Jan 22 at 21:06




$begingroup$
I think the main thing to observe and use is that $F$ contains (an isomorphic copy of) the rational numbers as its prime subfield, so you can divide by non-zero integers in $F$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Jan 22 at 21:06




1




1




$begingroup$
Also, should $F$ have a positive characteristic, then $Im(D)$ will fail to be a subring. Therefore that claim may be less clear than you think in characteristic zero as well.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 22 at 21:27






$begingroup$
Also, should $F$ have a positive characteristic, then $Im(D)$ will fail to be a subring. Therefore that claim may be less clear than you think in characteristic zero as well.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 22 at 21:27














$begingroup$
Can you also formally integrate a polynomial in this case?
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 22 at 21:28




$begingroup$
Can you also formally integrate a polynomial in this case?
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 22 at 21:28










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Hint:
$$
DBigl(frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}Bigr)=
$$



Further hint: as soon as you have proved that $x^ninoperatorname{Im}(D)$, for every $nge0$, you can apply the fact that $D$ is linear.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    ...equals x^n. And D(1)=0. But why would that imply that Im(D)=F[x]?
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 6:16










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ The map $D$ is linear and the polynomials $x^n$ (for $nge0$) span $F[x]$ as an $F$-vector space.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 7:46










  • $begingroup$
    (1,x,x^2,...,x^n) spans F[x] but (1,x,x^2,...,x^(n-1) span Im(D). For me Im(D) is a subring of lower dimension and not equal to F[x]. i still dont get it :(
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 10:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ There's no limitation on the degree in either case.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 10:03











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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

Hint:
$$
DBigl(frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}Bigr)=
$$



Further hint: as soon as you have proved that $x^ninoperatorname{Im}(D)$, for every $nge0$, you can apply the fact that $D$ is linear.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    ...equals x^n. And D(1)=0. But why would that imply that Im(D)=F[x]?
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 6:16










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ The map $D$ is linear and the polynomials $x^n$ (for $nge0$) span $F[x]$ as an $F$-vector space.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 7:46










  • $begingroup$
    (1,x,x^2,...,x^n) spans F[x] but (1,x,x^2,...,x^(n-1) span Im(D). For me Im(D) is a subring of lower dimension and not equal to F[x]. i still dont get it :(
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 10:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ There's no limitation on the degree in either case.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 10:03
















0












$begingroup$

Hint:
$$
DBigl(frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}Bigr)=
$$



Further hint: as soon as you have proved that $x^ninoperatorname{Im}(D)$, for every $nge0$, you can apply the fact that $D$ is linear.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    ...equals x^n. And D(1)=0. But why would that imply that Im(D)=F[x]?
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 6:16










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ The map $D$ is linear and the polynomials $x^n$ (for $nge0$) span $F[x]$ as an $F$-vector space.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 7:46










  • $begingroup$
    (1,x,x^2,...,x^n) spans F[x] but (1,x,x^2,...,x^(n-1) span Im(D). For me Im(D) is a subring of lower dimension and not equal to F[x]. i still dont get it :(
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 10:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ There's no limitation on the degree in either case.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 10:03














0












0








0





$begingroup$

Hint:
$$
DBigl(frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}Bigr)=
$$



Further hint: as soon as you have proved that $x^ninoperatorname{Im}(D)$, for every $nge0$, you can apply the fact that $D$ is linear.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Hint:
$$
DBigl(frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}Bigr)=
$$



Further hint: as soon as you have proved that $x^ninoperatorname{Im}(D)$, for every $nge0$, you can apply the fact that $D$ is linear.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 23 at 10:05

























answered Jan 22 at 21:54









egregegreg

184k1486205




184k1486205












  • $begingroup$
    ...equals x^n. And D(1)=0. But why would that imply that Im(D)=F[x]?
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 6:16










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ The map $D$ is linear and the polynomials $x^n$ (for $nge0$) span $F[x]$ as an $F$-vector space.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 7:46










  • $begingroup$
    (1,x,x^2,...,x^n) spans F[x] but (1,x,x^2,...,x^(n-1) span Im(D). For me Im(D) is a subring of lower dimension and not equal to F[x]. i still dont get it :(
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 10:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ There's no limitation on the degree in either case.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 10:03


















  • $begingroup$
    ...equals x^n. And D(1)=0. But why would that imply that Im(D)=F[x]?
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 6:16










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ The map $D$ is linear and the polynomials $x^n$ (for $nge0$) span $F[x]$ as an $F$-vector space.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 7:46










  • $begingroup$
    (1,x,x^2,...,x^n) spans F[x] but (1,x,x^2,...,x^(n-1) span Im(D). For me Im(D) is a subring of lower dimension and not equal to F[x]. i still dont get it :(
    $endgroup$
    – MathQ
    Jan 23 at 10:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MathQ There's no limitation on the degree in either case.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 23 at 10:03
















$begingroup$
...equals x^n. And D(1)=0. But why would that imply that Im(D)=F[x]?
$endgroup$
– MathQ
Jan 23 at 6:16




$begingroup$
...equals x^n. And D(1)=0. But why would that imply that Im(D)=F[x]?
$endgroup$
– MathQ
Jan 23 at 6:16












$begingroup$
@MathQ The map $D$ is linear and the polynomials $x^n$ (for $nge0$) span $F[x]$ as an $F$-vector space.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 23 at 7:46




$begingroup$
@MathQ The map $D$ is linear and the polynomials $x^n$ (for $nge0$) span $F[x]$ as an $F$-vector space.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 23 at 7:46












$begingroup$
(1,x,x^2,...,x^n) spans F[x] but (1,x,x^2,...,x^(n-1) span Im(D). For me Im(D) is a subring of lower dimension and not equal to F[x]. i still dont get it :(
$endgroup$
– MathQ
Jan 23 at 10:02




$begingroup$
(1,x,x^2,...,x^n) spans F[x] but (1,x,x^2,...,x^(n-1) span Im(D). For me Im(D) is a subring of lower dimension and not equal to F[x]. i still dont get it :(
$endgroup$
– MathQ
Jan 23 at 10:02












$begingroup$
@MathQ There's no limitation on the degree in either case.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 23 at 10:03




$begingroup$
@MathQ There's no limitation on the degree in either case.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 23 at 10:03


















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