Intersection of totally ordered set of spanning sets is still spanning.












1












$begingroup$


Suppose $Ssubseteq V$ is a spanning set(possibly infinite) of a non-zero vector space $V$.



Let $s'={ssubseteq S|$$s$ also spans V$}$. Suppose $ l subseteq s'$ is a totally ordered non-empty subset of $s'$.



How do I show that span$(cap l)$ =V.



It looks true to me. If we take a $cin l$. It would contain all the vectors of those sets(whose spans are also V) that are subsets of it.



And all supersets would also contain vectors of $c$. But I just can't seem to show vigorously that the intersection spans V. (i.e. can't find least element.)



Any ideas on how to prove it or is it false?



P.S. I'm trying to prove that every spanning set has a basis. i.e. Zorn's Lemma, Dual order etc










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As an aside, the usual way of proving that every spanning set has a basis is to consider the partially ordered set of all linearly independent subsets of the spanning set, and showing that a maximal element of this set will necessarily include the spanning set in its span, and hence will itself span.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 3:32










  • $begingroup$
    @ArturoMagidin I see. So the proof is similar to showing that any linearly independent set can be extended to a basis except now we are just working within a spanning set. Thanks. PS. just out of curiosity is the above statement still true?
    $endgroup$
    – Jhon Doe
    Jan 19 at 3:38












  • $begingroup$
    I’m fairly sure that it is. BTW, you can actually prove both statements (extension and paring down) at the same time as the existence of a basis, by sbowing that if $Lsubseteq S$, $L$ is linearly independent, and $S$ spans, then there is a basis $B$ with $Lsubseteq Bsubseteq S$. You get the statement for linearly independent subsets by taking $S=V$, and the statement for spanning sets by taking $L=varnothing$, and the existence of bases by taking $L=varnothing$ and $S=V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 4:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Actually, I think the statement you are trying to prove is false.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 4:36
















1












$begingroup$


Suppose $Ssubseteq V$ is a spanning set(possibly infinite) of a non-zero vector space $V$.



Let $s'={ssubseteq S|$$s$ also spans V$}$. Suppose $ l subseteq s'$ is a totally ordered non-empty subset of $s'$.



How do I show that span$(cap l)$ =V.



It looks true to me. If we take a $cin l$. It would contain all the vectors of those sets(whose spans are also V) that are subsets of it.



And all supersets would also contain vectors of $c$. But I just can't seem to show vigorously that the intersection spans V. (i.e. can't find least element.)



Any ideas on how to prove it or is it false?



P.S. I'm trying to prove that every spanning set has a basis. i.e. Zorn's Lemma, Dual order etc










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As an aside, the usual way of proving that every spanning set has a basis is to consider the partially ordered set of all linearly independent subsets of the spanning set, and showing that a maximal element of this set will necessarily include the spanning set in its span, and hence will itself span.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 3:32










  • $begingroup$
    @ArturoMagidin I see. So the proof is similar to showing that any linearly independent set can be extended to a basis except now we are just working within a spanning set. Thanks. PS. just out of curiosity is the above statement still true?
    $endgroup$
    – Jhon Doe
    Jan 19 at 3:38












  • $begingroup$
    I’m fairly sure that it is. BTW, you can actually prove both statements (extension and paring down) at the same time as the existence of a basis, by sbowing that if $Lsubseteq S$, $L$ is linearly independent, and $S$ spans, then there is a basis $B$ with $Lsubseteq Bsubseteq S$. You get the statement for linearly independent subsets by taking $S=V$, and the statement for spanning sets by taking $L=varnothing$, and the existence of bases by taking $L=varnothing$ and $S=V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 4:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Actually, I think the statement you are trying to prove is false.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 4:36














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Suppose $Ssubseteq V$ is a spanning set(possibly infinite) of a non-zero vector space $V$.



Let $s'={ssubseteq S|$$s$ also spans V$}$. Suppose $ l subseteq s'$ is a totally ordered non-empty subset of $s'$.



How do I show that span$(cap l)$ =V.



It looks true to me. If we take a $cin l$. It would contain all the vectors of those sets(whose spans are also V) that are subsets of it.



And all supersets would also contain vectors of $c$. But I just can't seem to show vigorously that the intersection spans V. (i.e. can't find least element.)



Any ideas on how to prove it or is it false?



P.S. I'm trying to prove that every spanning set has a basis. i.e. Zorn's Lemma, Dual order etc










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose $Ssubseteq V$ is a spanning set(possibly infinite) of a non-zero vector space $V$.



Let $s'={ssubseteq S|$$s$ also spans V$}$. Suppose $ l subseteq s'$ is a totally ordered non-empty subset of $s'$.



How do I show that span$(cap l)$ =V.



It looks true to me. If we take a $cin l$. It would contain all the vectors of those sets(whose spans are also V) that are subsets of it.



And all supersets would also contain vectors of $c$. But I just can't seem to show vigorously that the intersection spans V. (i.e. can't find least element.)



Any ideas on how to prove it or is it false?



P.S. I'm trying to prove that every spanning set has a basis. i.e. Zorn's Lemma, Dual order etc







linear-algebra vector-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 19 at 3:24







Jhon Doe

















asked Jan 19 at 2:57









Jhon DoeJhon Doe

614314




614314








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As an aside, the usual way of proving that every spanning set has a basis is to consider the partially ordered set of all linearly independent subsets of the spanning set, and showing that a maximal element of this set will necessarily include the spanning set in its span, and hence will itself span.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 3:32










  • $begingroup$
    @ArturoMagidin I see. So the proof is similar to showing that any linearly independent set can be extended to a basis except now we are just working within a spanning set. Thanks. PS. just out of curiosity is the above statement still true?
    $endgroup$
    – Jhon Doe
    Jan 19 at 3:38












  • $begingroup$
    I’m fairly sure that it is. BTW, you can actually prove both statements (extension and paring down) at the same time as the existence of a basis, by sbowing that if $Lsubseteq S$, $L$ is linearly independent, and $S$ spans, then there is a basis $B$ with $Lsubseteq Bsubseteq S$. You get the statement for linearly independent subsets by taking $S=V$, and the statement for spanning sets by taking $L=varnothing$, and the existence of bases by taking $L=varnothing$ and $S=V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 4:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Actually, I think the statement you are trying to prove is false.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 4:36














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As an aside, the usual way of proving that every spanning set has a basis is to consider the partially ordered set of all linearly independent subsets of the spanning set, and showing that a maximal element of this set will necessarily include the spanning set in its span, and hence will itself span.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 3:32










  • $begingroup$
    @ArturoMagidin I see. So the proof is similar to showing that any linearly independent set can be extended to a basis except now we are just working within a spanning set. Thanks. PS. just out of curiosity is the above statement still true?
    $endgroup$
    – Jhon Doe
    Jan 19 at 3:38












  • $begingroup$
    I’m fairly sure that it is. BTW, you can actually prove both statements (extension and paring down) at the same time as the existence of a basis, by sbowing that if $Lsubseteq S$, $L$ is linearly independent, and $S$ spans, then there is a basis $B$ with $Lsubseteq Bsubseteq S$. You get the statement for linearly independent subsets by taking $S=V$, and the statement for spanning sets by taking $L=varnothing$, and the existence of bases by taking $L=varnothing$ and $S=V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 4:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Actually, I think the statement you are trying to prove is false.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 19 at 4:36








1




1




$begingroup$
As an aside, the usual way of proving that every spanning set has a basis is to consider the partially ordered set of all linearly independent subsets of the spanning set, and showing that a maximal element of this set will necessarily include the spanning set in its span, and hence will itself span.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 19 at 3:32




$begingroup$
As an aside, the usual way of proving that every spanning set has a basis is to consider the partially ordered set of all linearly independent subsets of the spanning set, and showing that a maximal element of this set will necessarily include the spanning set in its span, and hence will itself span.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 19 at 3:32












$begingroup$
@ArturoMagidin I see. So the proof is similar to showing that any linearly independent set can be extended to a basis except now we are just working within a spanning set. Thanks. PS. just out of curiosity is the above statement still true?
$endgroup$
– Jhon Doe
Jan 19 at 3:38






$begingroup$
@ArturoMagidin I see. So the proof is similar to showing that any linearly independent set can be extended to a basis except now we are just working within a spanning set. Thanks. PS. just out of curiosity is the above statement still true?
$endgroup$
– Jhon Doe
Jan 19 at 3:38














$begingroup$
I’m fairly sure that it is. BTW, you can actually prove both statements (extension and paring down) at the same time as the existence of a basis, by sbowing that if $Lsubseteq S$, $L$ is linearly independent, and $S$ spans, then there is a basis $B$ with $Lsubseteq Bsubseteq S$. You get the statement for linearly independent subsets by taking $S=V$, and the statement for spanning sets by taking $L=varnothing$, and the existence of bases by taking $L=varnothing$ and $S=V$.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 19 at 4:13




$begingroup$
I’m fairly sure that it is. BTW, you can actually prove both statements (extension and paring down) at the same time as the existence of a basis, by sbowing that if $Lsubseteq S$, $L$ is linearly independent, and $S$ spans, then there is a basis $B$ with $Lsubseteq Bsubseteq S$. You get the statement for linearly independent subsets by taking $S=V$, and the statement for spanning sets by taking $L=varnothing$, and the existence of bases by taking $L=varnothing$ and $S=V$.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 19 at 4:13




1




1




$begingroup$
Actually, I think the statement you are trying to prove is false.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 19 at 4:36




$begingroup$
Actually, I think the statement you are trying to prove is false.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 19 at 4:36










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

I believe the statement you are trying to prove is false.



Consider $V=mathbb{R}$ as a vector space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $S$ be the interval $(-1,1)$ (which is certainly a spanning set; note that a subset of $V$ is a spanning set if and only if it contains at least one nonzero number). Now let $l={(-frac{1}{n},frac{1}{n})mid ninmathbb{N}_{gt 0}}$. This is a totally ordered subset of the collection of all subsets of $S$ that span $V$. However, $cap l = {0}$, which is not a spanning set.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Hence the obvious proof that every spanning set contains a basis, by using Zorn's lemma to show it contains a minimal spanning set, doesn't work. Which explains why "maximal independent set" seems to be so much more popular than ""minimal spanning set"...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 19 at 14:17











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

I believe the statement you are trying to prove is false.



Consider $V=mathbb{R}$ as a vector space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $S$ be the interval $(-1,1)$ (which is certainly a spanning set; note that a subset of $V$ is a spanning set if and only if it contains at least one nonzero number). Now let $l={(-frac{1}{n},frac{1}{n})mid ninmathbb{N}_{gt 0}}$. This is a totally ordered subset of the collection of all subsets of $S$ that span $V$. However, $cap l = {0}$, which is not a spanning set.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Hence the obvious proof that every spanning set contains a basis, by using Zorn's lemma to show it contains a minimal spanning set, doesn't work. Which explains why "maximal independent set" seems to be so much more popular than ""minimal spanning set"...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 19 at 14:17
















2












$begingroup$

I believe the statement you are trying to prove is false.



Consider $V=mathbb{R}$ as a vector space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $S$ be the interval $(-1,1)$ (which is certainly a spanning set; note that a subset of $V$ is a spanning set if and only if it contains at least one nonzero number). Now let $l={(-frac{1}{n},frac{1}{n})mid ninmathbb{N}_{gt 0}}$. This is a totally ordered subset of the collection of all subsets of $S$ that span $V$. However, $cap l = {0}$, which is not a spanning set.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Hence the obvious proof that every spanning set contains a basis, by using Zorn's lemma to show it contains a minimal spanning set, doesn't work. Which explains why "maximal independent set" seems to be so much more popular than ""minimal spanning set"...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 19 at 14:17














2












2








2





$begingroup$

I believe the statement you are trying to prove is false.



Consider $V=mathbb{R}$ as a vector space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $S$ be the interval $(-1,1)$ (which is certainly a spanning set; note that a subset of $V$ is a spanning set if and only if it contains at least one nonzero number). Now let $l={(-frac{1}{n},frac{1}{n})mid ninmathbb{N}_{gt 0}}$. This is a totally ordered subset of the collection of all subsets of $S$ that span $V$. However, $cap l = {0}$, which is not a spanning set.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



I believe the statement you are trying to prove is false.



Consider $V=mathbb{R}$ as a vector space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $S$ be the interval $(-1,1)$ (which is certainly a spanning set; note that a subset of $V$ is a spanning set if and only if it contains at least one nonzero number). Now let $l={(-frac{1}{n},frac{1}{n})mid ninmathbb{N}_{gt 0}}$. This is a totally ordered subset of the collection of all subsets of $S$ that span $V$. However, $cap l = {0}$, which is not a spanning set.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 19 at 4:32









Arturo MagidinArturo Magidin

264k34588915




264k34588915












  • $begingroup$
    Hence the obvious proof that every spanning set contains a basis, by using Zorn's lemma to show it contains a minimal spanning set, doesn't work. Which explains why "maximal independent set" seems to be so much more popular than ""minimal spanning set"...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 19 at 14:17


















  • $begingroup$
    Hence the obvious proof that every spanning set contains a basis, by using Zorn's lemma to show it contains a minimal spanning set, doesn't work. Which explains why "maximal independent set" seems to be so much more popular than ""minimal spanning set"...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 19 at 14:17
















$begingroup$
Hence the obvious proof that every spanning set contains a basis, by using Zorn's lemma to show it contains a minimal spanning set, doesn't work. Which explains why "maximal independent set" seems to be so much more popular than ""minimal spanning set"...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 19 at 14:17




$begingroup$
Hence the obvious proof that every spanning set contains a basis, by using Zorn's lemma to show it contains a minimal spanning set, doesn't work. Which explains why "maximal independent set" seems to be so much more popular than ""minimal spanning set"...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 19 at 14:17


















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