Normal subgroup and corresponding homomorphism












0












$begingroup$


Topics in Algebra, a book written by Herstein, said the following thing on the first isomorphism theory:




[The book says] Theorem 2.7.1 is important, for it tells us precisely what groups can
be expected to arise as homomorphic images of a given group. These
must be expressible in the form $G/K$, where $K$ is normal in $G$.
But, by Lemma 2.7.1, for any normal subgroup $N$ of $G$, $G/N$ is a
homomorphic image of $G$. Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence
between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$.




(In that book, Theorem 2.7.1 refers to the first isomorphism theorem, and Lemma 2.7.1 says for any normal subgroup N of G, G/N is a homomorphic image of G)



Would you check my following interpretation of Herstein's sentence?




[My interpretation] Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$ and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$,
where $mathrm{Hom}(G)$ denotes collection of homomorphism from $G$ to
somewhere and $cong$ denotes isomorphism relation of groups. Then,
there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omegani Nmapsto {finmathrm{Hom}(G),|,f(G)cong G/N}inPi$.




I found a similar question but I couldn't understand this. I am just a beginner of abstract math, so I'm sorry in advance if I use some symbols and notations strangely.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Nothing against your interpretation, but I think the sentence "Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$" is just short and clear. Yours is a bit more difficult.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 19 at 20:05












  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Thanks for your comment. After thinking bit more, I came to suspect that my interpretaion was actually wrong. For example, let $A={(x, y)in R^2|y=0}$ and $B={(x, y)in R^2| x=0}$ be groups about usual vector's addition. In this case, $Atriangleleft R^2$ and $Btriangleleft R^2$, and $R^2/Acong R^2/B$. Thus, by the map $phi$ that I defined earlier, $A$ and $B$ send to the equal element of $Pi$, which means $phi$ is no longer be one-to-one.
    $endgroup$
    – orematasaburou
    Jan 20 at 14:09










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Instead, I think the follwing is correct. Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$, $Omega^{prime}=Omega/cong$, and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$. Then, there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omega^{prime}toPi$. I would be grateful if you give me comment on this.
    $endgroup$
    – orematasaburou
    Jan 20 at 14:10
















0












$begingroup$


Topics in Algebra, a book written by Herstein, said the following thing on the first isomorphism theory:




[The book says] Theorem 2.7.1 is important, for it tells us precisely what groups can
be expected to arise as homomorphic images of a given group. These
must be expressible in the form $G/K$, where $K$ is normal in $G$.
But, by Lemma 2.7.1, for any normal subgroup $N$ of $G$, $G/N$ is a
homomorphic image of $G$. Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence
between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$.




(In that book, Theorem 2.7.1 refers to the first isomorphism theorem, and Lemma 2.7.1 says for any normal subgroup N of G, G/N is a homomorphic image of G)



Would you check my following interpretation of Herstein's sentence?




[My interpretation] Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$ and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$,
where $mathrm{Hom}(G)$ denotes collection of homomorphism from $G$ to
somewhere and $cong$ denotes isomorphism relation of groups. Then,
there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omegani Nmapsto {finmathrm{Hom}(G),|,f(G)cong G/N}inPi$.




I found a similar question but I couldn't understand this. I am just a beginner of abstract math, so I'm sorry in advance if I use some symbols and notations strangely.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Nothing against your interpretation, but I think the sentence "Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$" is just short and clear. Yours is a bit more difficult.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 19 at 20:05












  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Thanks for your comment. After thinking bit more, I came to suspect that my interpretaion was actually wrong. For example, let $A={(x, y)in R^2|y=0}$ and $B={(x, y)in R^2| x=0}$ be groups about usual vector's addition. In this case, $Atriangleleft R^2$ and $Btriangleleft R^2$, and $R^2/Acong R^2/B$. Thus, by the map $phi$ that I defined earlier, $A$ and $B$ send to the equal element of $Pi$, which means $phi$ is no longer be one-to-one.
    $endgroup$
    – orematasaburou
    Jan 20 at 14:09










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Instead, I think the follwing is correct. Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$, $Omega^{prime}=Omega/cong$, and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$. Then, there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omega^{prime}toPi$. I would be grateful if you give me comment on this.
    $endgroup$
    – orematasaburou
    Jan 20 at 14:10














0












0








0


1



$begingroup$


Topics in Algebra, a book written by Herstein, said the following thing on the first isomorphism theory:




[The book says] Theorem 2.7.1 is important, for it tells us precisely what groups can
be expected to arise as homomorphic images of a given group. These
must be expressible in the form $G/K$, where $K$ is normal in $G$.
But, by Lemma 2.7.1, for any normal subgroup $N$ of $G$, $G/N$ is a
homomorphic image of $G$. Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence
between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$.




(In that book, Theorem 2.7.1 refers to the first isomorphism theorem, and Lemma 2.7.1 says for any normal subgroup N of G, G/N is a homomorphic image of G)



Would you check my following interpretation of Herstein's sentence?




[My interpretation] Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$ and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$,
where $mathrm{Hom}(G)$ denotes collection of homomorphism from $G$ to
somewhere and $cong$ denotes isomorphism relation of groups. Then,
there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omegani Nmapsto {finmathrm{Hom}(G),|,f(G)cong G/N}inPi$.




I found a similar question but I couldn't understand this. I am just a beginner of abstract math, so I'm sorry in advance if I use some symbols and notations strangely.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Topics in Algebra, a book written by Herstein, said the following thing on the first isomorphism theory:




[The book says] Theorem 2.7.1 is important, for it tells us precisely what groups can
be expected to arise as homomorphic images of a given group. These
must be expressible in the form $G/K$, where $K$ is normal in $G$.
But, by Lemma 2.7.1, for any normal subgroup $N$ of $G$, $G/N$ is a
homomorphic image of $G$. Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence
between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$.




(In that book, Theorem 2.7.1 refers to the first isomorphism theorem, and Lemma 2.7.1 says for any normal subgroup N of G, G/N is a homomorphic image of G)



Would you check my following interpretation of Herstein's sentence?




[My interpretation] Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$ and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$,
where $mathrm{Hom}(G)$ denotes collection of homomorphism from $G$ to
somewhere and $cong$ denotes isomorphism relation of groups. Then,
there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omegani Nmapsto {finmathrm{Hom}(G),|,f(G)cong G/N}inPi$.




I found a similar question but I couldn't understand this. I am just a beginner of abstract math, so I'm sorry in advance if I use some symbols and notations strangely.







abstract-algebra group-theory normal-subgroups group-isomorphism group-homomorphism






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 19 at 19:55









orematasaburouorematasaburou

447




447








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Nothing against your interpretation, but I think the sentence "Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$" is just short and clear. Yours is a bit more difficult.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 19 at 20:05












  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Thanks for your comment. After thinking bit more, I came to suspect that my interpretaion was actually wrong. For example, let $A={(x, y)in R^2|y=0}$ and $B={(x, y)in R^2| x=0}$ be groups about usual vector's addition. In this case, $Atriangleleft R^2$ and $Btriangleleft R^2$, and $R^2/Acong R^2/B$. Thus, by the map $phi$ that I defined earlier, $A$ and $B$ send to the equal element of $Pi$, which means $phi$ is no longer be one-to-one.
    $endgroup$
    – orematasaburou
    Jan 20 at 14:09










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Instead, I think the follwing is correct. Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$, $Omega^{prime}=Omega/cong$, and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$. Then, there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omega^{prime}toPi$. I would be grateful if you give me comment on this.
    $endgroup$
    – orematasaburou
    Jan 20 at 14:10














  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Nothing against your interpretation, but I think the sentence "Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$" is just short and clear. Yours is a bit more difficult.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 19 at 20:05












  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Thanks for your comment. After thinking bit more, I came to suspect that my interpretaion was actually wrong. For example, let $A={(x, y)in R^2|y=0}$ and $B={(x, y)in R^2| x=0}$ be groups about usual vector's addition. In this case, $Atriangleleft R^2$ and $Btriangleleft R^2$, and $R^2/Acong R^2/B$. Thus, by the map $phi$ that I defined earlier, $A$ and $B$ send to the equal element of $Pi$, which means $phi$ is no longer be one-to-one.
    $endgroup$
    – orematasaburou
    Jan 20 at 14:09










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Instead, I think the follwing is correct. Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$, $Omega^{prime}=Omega/cong$, and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$. Then, there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omega^{prime}toPi$. I would be grateful if you give me comment on this.
    $endgroup$
    – orematasaburou
    Jan 20 at 14:10








4




4




$begingroup$
Nothing against your interpretation, but I think the sentence "Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$" is just short and clear. Yours is a bit more difficult.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 19 at 20:05






$begingroup$
Nothing against your interpretation, but I think the sentence "Thus there is a one-to-one correspondence between homomorphic images of $G$ and normal subgroups of $G$" is just short and clear. Yours is a bit more difficult.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 19 at 20:05














$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde Thanks for your comment. After thinking bit more, I came to suspect that my interpretaion was actually wrong. For example, let $A={(x, y)in R^2|y=0}$ and $B={(x, y)in R^2| x=0}$ be groups about usual vector's addition. In this case, $Atriangleleft R^2$ and $Btriangleleft R^2$, and $R^2/Acong R^2/B$. Thus, by the map $phi$ that I defined earlier, $A$ and $B$ send to the equal element of $Pi$, which means $phi$ is no longer be one-to-one.
$endgroup$
– orematasaburou
Jan 20 at 14:09




$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde Thanks for your comment. After thinking bit more, I came to suspect that my interpretaion was actually wrong. For example, let $A={(x, y)in R^2|y=0}$ and $B={(x, y)in R^2| x=0}$ be groups about usual vector's addition. In this case, $Atriangleleft R^2$ and $Btriangleleft R^2$, and $R^2/Acong R^2/B$. Thus, by the map $phi$ that I defined earlier, $A$ and $B$ send to the equal element of $Pi$, which means $phi$ is no longer be one-to-one.
$endgroup$
– orematasaburou
Jan 20 at 14:09












$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde Instead, I think the follwing is correct. Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$, $Omega^{prime}=Omega/cong$, and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$. Then, there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omega^{prime}toPi$. I would be grateful if you give me comment on this.
$endgroup$
– orematasaburou
Jan 20 at 14:10




$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde Instead, I think the follwing is correct. Let $Omega={N|Ntriangleleft G}$, $Omega^{prime}=Omega/cong$, and $Pi=mathrm{Hom}(G)/cong$. Then, there exists one-to-one correspondence $phi:Omega^{prime}toPi$. I would be grateful if you give me comment on this.
$endgroup$
– orematasaburou
Jan 20 at 14:10










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