Spherical Harmonics expansion for $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$.
$begingroup$
Let $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$ where $S^{n-1}$ is the unit sphere of $Bbb{R}^n$.
As it is known $f$ has the following spherical Harmonics expansion (the convergence is $L^{2}(S^{n-1})$ in :
$f(w)=sum_{j} Y_j(w)$ where $Y_jin H_j$ with $H_j$ is the space of spherical harmonics of degree $j$.
Now let $fin C(S^{n-1})$ (space of continuous functions on S^{n-1} ) then $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$.
Hence $f(w)=sum_{j} Y_j(w)$.
My question can we say that the series in question converge uniformly and absolutely on $S^{n-1}$.
fourier-analysis harmonic-analysis spherical-harmonics
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$ where $S^{n-1}$ is the unit sphere of $Bbb{R}^n$.
As it is known $f$ has the following spherical Harmonics expansion (the convergence is $L^{2}(S^{n-1})$ in :
$f(w)=sum_{j} Y_j(w)$ where $Y_jin H_j$ with $H_j$ is the space of spherical harmonics of degree $j$.
Now let $fin C(S^{n-1})$ (space of continuous functions on S^{n-1} ) then $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$.
Hence $f(w)=sum_{j} Y_j(w)$.
My question can we say that the series in question converge uniformly and absolutely on $S^{n-1}$.
fourier-analysis harmonic-analysis spherical-harmonics
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$ where $S^{n-1}$ is the unit sphere of $Bbb{R}^n$.
As it is known $f$ has the following spherical Harmonics expansion (the convergence is $L^{2}(S^{n-1})$ in :
$f(w)=sum_{j} Y_j(w)$ where $Y_jin H_j$ with $H_j$ is the space of spherical harmonics of degree $j$.
Now let $fin C(S^{n-1})$ (space of continuous functions on S^{n-1} ) then $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$.
Hence $f(w)=sum_{j} Y_j(w)$.
My question can we say that the series in question converge uniformly and absolutely on $S^{n-1}$.
fourier-analysis harmonic-analysis spherical-harmonics
$endgroup$
Let $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$ where $S^{n-1}$ is the unit sphere of $Bbb{R}^n$.
As it is known $f$ has the following spherical Harmonics expansion (the convergence is $L^{2}(S^{n-1})$ in :
$f(w)=sum_{j} Y_j(w)$ where $Y_jin H_j$ with $H_j$ is the space of spherical harmonics of degree $j$.
Now let $fin C(S^{n-1})$ (space of continuous functions on S^{n-1} ) then $fin L^{2}(S^{n-1})$.
Hence $f(w)=sum_{j} Y_j(w)$.
My question can we say that the series in question converge uniformly and absolutely on $S^{n-1}$.
fourier-analysis harmonic-analysis spherical-harmonics
fourier-analysis harmonic-analysis spherical-harmonics
asked Nov 19 '17 at 12:24
A.Zoran A.Zoran
314
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No, such convergence fails already on $S^1$, in the theory of Fourier series, for example. And, already in the ordinary theory of Fourier series, there are at least two nice assumptions to achieve uniform pointwise convergence: absolute summability of the Fourier coefficients (e.g., from assuming $f$ is $C^1$), or, a Sobolev-type inequality, such as knowing $f$ and its distributional derivative $f'$ are both in $L^2$. But either sort of condition increases in severity as dimension $n$ of $(S^1)^n$ goes up: for the $L^2$ Sobolev inequality, we need more than $n/2$ distributional derivatives to be in $L^2$.
On higher-dimensional spheres, there is likewise a range of possible assumptions to guarantee uniform pointwise convergence, but $L^2$ is far from enough, and all the worse as dimension goes up. As on a product of circles, sufficient smoothness suffices, and/or $L^2$-ness of sufficiently many derivatives $Delta^k f$ where (e.g.) $Delta$ is the rotation-invariant Laplace-Beltrami operator on the sphere. The Sobolev index shift is again dimension/2.
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
No, such convergence fails already on $S^1$, in the theory of Fourier series, for example. And, already in the ordinary theory of Fourier series, there are at least two nice assumptions to achieve uniform pointwise convergence: absolute summability of the Fourier coefficients (e.g., from assuming $f$ is $C^1$), or, a Sobolev-type inequality, such as knowing $f$ and its distributional derivative $f'$ are both in $L^2$. But either sort of condition increases in severity as dimension $n$ of $(S^1)^n$ goes up: for the $L^2$ Sobolev inequality, we need more than $n/2$ distributional derivatives to be in $L^2$.
On higher-dimensional spheres, there is likewise a range of possible assumptions to guarantee uniform pointwise convergence, but $L^2$ is far from enough, and all the worse as dimension goes up. As on a product of circles, sufficient smoothness suffices, and/or $L^2$-ness of sufficiently many derivatives $Delta^k f$ where (e.g.) $Delta$ is the rotation-invariant Laplace-Beltrami operator on the sphere. The Sobolev index shift is again dimension/2.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, such convergence fails already on $S^1$, in the theory of Fourier series, for example. And, already in the ordinary theory of Fourier series, there are at least two nice assumptions to achieve uniform pointwise convergence: absolute summability of the Fourier coefficients (e.g., from assuming $f$ is $C^1$), or, a Sobolev-type inequality, such as knowing $f$ and its distributional derivative $f'$ are both in $L^2$. But either sort of condition increases in severity as dimension $n$ of $(S^1)^n$ goes up: for the $L^2$ Sobolev inequality, we need more than $n/2$ distributional derivatives to be in $L^2$.
On higher-dimensional spheres, there is likewise a range of possible assumptions to guarantee uniform pointwise convergence, but $L^2$ is far from enough, and all the worse as dimension goes up. As on a product of circles, sufficient smoothness suffices, and/or $L^2$-ness of sufficiently many derivatives $Delta^k f$ where (e.g.) $Delta$ is the rotation-invariant Laplace-Beltrami operator on the sphere. The Sobolev index shift is again dimension/2.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, such convergence fails already on $S^1$, in the theory of Fourier series, for example. And, already in the ordinary theory of Fourier series, there are at least two nice assumptions to achieve uniform pointwise convergence: absolute summability of the Fourier coefficients (e.g., from assuming $f$ is $C^1$), or, a Sobolev-type inequality, such as knowing $f$ and its distributional derivative $f'$ are both in $L^2$. But either sort of condition increases in severity as dimension $n$ of $(S^1)^n$ goes up: for the $L^2$ Sobolev inequality, we need more than $n/2$ distributional derivatives to be in $L^2$.
On higher-dimensional spheres, there is likewise a range of possible assumptions to guarantee uniform pointwise convergence, but $L^2$ is far from enough, and all the worse as dimension goes up. As on a product of circles, sufficient smoothness suffices, and/or $L^2$-ness of sufficiently many derivatives $Delta^k f$ where (e.g.) $Delta$ is the rotation-invariant Laplace-Beltrami operator on the sphere. The Sobolev index shift is again dimension/2.
$endgroup$
No, such convergence fails already on $S^1$, in the theory of Fourier series, for example. And, already in the ordinary theory of Fourier series, there are at least two nice assumptions to achieve uniform pointwise convergence: absolute summability of the Fourier coefficients (e.g., from assuming $f$ is $C^1$), or, a Sobolev-type inequality, such as knowing $f$ and its distributional derivative $f'$ are both in $L^2$. But either sort of condition increases in severity as dimension $n$ of $(S^1)^n$ goes up: for the $L^2$ Sobolev inequality, we need more than $n/2$ distributional derivatives to be in $L^2$.
On higher-dimensional spheres, there is likewise a range of possible assumptions to guarantee uniform pointwise convergence, but $L^2$ is far from enough, and all the worse as dimension goes up. As on a product of circles, sufficient smoothness suffices, and/or $L^2$-ness of sufficiently many derivatives $Delta^k f$ where (e.g.) $Delta$ is the rotation-invariant Laplace-Beltrami operator on the sphere. The Sobolev index shift is again dimension/2.
answered Jan 19 at 20:13
paul garrettpaul garrett
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