Obtain an expression for the inverse of a partitioned matrix.
$begingroup$
Consider the $m$x$m$ partitioned matrix
$
begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & (0) \
A_{21} & A_{22}
end{bmatrix}
=A$
where the $m_1$x$m_1$ matrix $A_{11}$ and the $m_2$x$m_2$ matrix $A_{22}$ are nonsingular. Obtain an expression for $A^{-1}$ in terms of $A_{11},A_{22},$ and $A_{21}$.
I do not even know where to start with this problem. There are many similar problems in the textbook with no available solution sets. I would greatly appreciate any help towards this problem. Thank you!
matrices
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider the $m$x$m$ partitioned matrix
$
begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & (0) \
A_{21} & A_{22}
end{bmatrix}
=A$
where the $m_1$x$m_1$ matrix $A_{11}$ and the $m_2$x$m_2$ matrix $A_{22}$ are nonsingular. Obtain an expression for $A^{-1}$ in terms of $A_{11},A_{22},$ and $A_{21}$.
I do not even know where to start with this problem. There are many similar problems in the textbook with no available solution sets. I would greatly appreciate any help towards this problem. Thank you!
matrices
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider the $m$x$m$ partitioned matrix
$
begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & (0) \
A_{21} & A_{22}
end{bmatrix}
=A$
where the $m_1$x$m_1$ matrix $A_{11}$ and the $m_2$x$m_2$ matrix $A_{22}$ are nonsingular. Obtain an expression for $A^{-1}$ in terms of $A_{11},A_{22},$ and $A_{21}$.
I do not even know where to start with this problem. There are many similar problems in the textbook with no available solution sets. I would greatly appreciate any help towards this problem. Thank you!
matrices
$endgroup$
Consider the $m$x$m$ partitioned matrix
$
begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & (0) \
A_{21} & A_{22}
end{bmatrix}
=A$
where the $m_1$x$m_1$ matrix $A_{11}$ and the $m_2$x$m_2$ matrix $A_{22}$ are nonsingular. Obtain an expression for $A^{-1}$ in terms of $A_{11},A_{22},$ and $A_{21}$.
I do not even know where to start with this problem. There are many similar problems in the textbook with no available solution sets. I would greatly appreciate any help towards this problem. Thank you!
matrices
matrices
asked Jan 25 at 1:40
MatthewMatthew
687
687
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The way to do this problem is the same way that you would find an inverse for a numeric $2times 2$ matrix. The only caveat is that we need to remember that there is no such things as division with matrices, but division is equivalent to multiplying by an inverse.
The way that I was always taught to find inverses was to append the first matrix with the identity matrix and reduce the first matrix to the identity matrix; the matrix on the right is now the inverse.
For example, we begin with
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
If this were a numeric matrix, we would divide the top row by the first entry, which is now the same as multiplying it by the inverse, so we have
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}simbegin{bmatrix}
I & 0 & A_{11}^{-1} & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
We continue this process until the left hand side becomes the identity matrix, and you should get something like
$$A^{-1}=begin{bmatrix}
A^{-1}_{11} & 0 \
-A^{-1}_{22}A_{21}A_{11}^{-1} & A_{22}^{-1}end{bmatrix}$$
You can check for yourself that this matrix is indeed the inverse by multiplying by the original matrix.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This was an excellent explanation and answer. Thank you for your input!
$endgroup$
– Matthew
Jan 25 at 3:17
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The way to do this problem is the same way that you would find an inverse for a numeric $2times 2$ matrix. The only caveat is that we need to remember that there is no such things as division with matrices, but division is equivalent to multiplying by an inverse.
The way that I was always taught to find inverses was to append the first matrix with the identity matrix and reduce the first matrix to the identity matrix; the matrix on the right is now the inverse.
For example, we begin with
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
If this were a numeric matrix, we would divide the top row by the first entry, which is now the same as multiplying it by the inverse, so we have
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}simbegin{bmatrix}
I & 0 & A_{11}^{-1} & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
We continue this process until the left hand side becomes the identity matrix, and you should get something like
$$A^{-1}=begin{bmatrix}
A^{-1}_{11} & 0 \
-A^{-1}_{22}A_{21}A_{11}^{-1} & A_{22}^{-1}end{bmatrix}$$
You can check for yourself that this matrix is indeed the inverse by multiplying by the original matrix.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This was an excellent explanation and answer. Thank you for your input!
$endgroup$
– Matthew
Jan 25 at 3:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The way to do this problem is the same way that you would find an inverse for a numeric $2times 2$ matrix. The only caveat is that we need to remember that there is no such things as division with matrices, but division is equivalent to multiplying by an inverse.
The way that I was always taught to find inverses was to append the first matrix with the identity matrix and reduce the first matrix to the identity matrix; the matrix on the right is now the inverse.
For example, we begin with
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
If this were a numeric matrix, we would divide the top row by the first entry, which is now the same as multiplying it by the inverse, so we have
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}simbegin{bmatrix}
I & 0 & A_{11}^{-1} & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
We continue this process until the left hand side becomes the identity matrix, and you should get something like
$$A^{-1}=begin{bmatrix}
A^{-1}_{11} & 0 \
-A^{-1}_{22}A_{21}A_{11}^{-1} & A_{22}^{-1}end{bmatrix}$$
You can check for yourself that this matrix is indeed the inverse by multiplying by the original matrix.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This was an excellent explanation and answer. Thank you for your input!
$endgroup$
– Matthew
Jan 25 at 3:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The way to do this problem is the same way that you would find an inverse for a numeric $2times 2$ matrix. The only caveat is that we need to remember that there is no such things as division with matrices, but division is equivalent to multiplying by an inverse.
The way that I was always taught to find inverses was to append the first matrix with the identity matrix and reduce the first matrix to the identity matrix; the matrix on the right is now the inverse.
For example, we begin with
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
If this were a numeric matrix, we would divide the top row by the first entry, which is now the same as multiplying it by the inverse, so we have
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}simbegin{bmatrix}
I & 0 & A_{11}^{-1} & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
We continue this process until the left hand side becomes the identity matrix, and you should get something like
$$A^{-1}=begin{bmatrix}
A^{-1}_{11} & 0 \
-A^{-1}_{22}A_{21}A_{11}^{-1} & A_{22}^{-1}end{bmatrix}$$
You can check for yourself that this matrix is indeed the inverse by multiplying by the original matrix.
$endgroup$
The way to do this problem is the same way that you would find an inverse for a numeric $2times 2$ matrix. The only caveat is that we need to remember that there is no such things as division with matrices, but division is equivalent to multiplying by an inverse.
The way that I was always taught to find inverses was to append the first matrix with the identity matrix and reduce the first matrix to the identity matrix; the matrix on the right is now the inverse.
For example, we begin with
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
If this were a numeric matrix, we would divide the top row by the first entry, which is now the same as multiplying it by the inverse, so we have
$$begin{bmatrix}
A_{11} & 0 & I & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}simbegin{bmatrix}
I & 0 & A_{11}^{-1} & 0 \
A_{21} & A_{22} & 0 & I end{bmatrix}$$
We continue this process until the left hand side becomes the identity matrix, and you should get something like
$$A^{-1}=begin{bmatrix}
A^{-1}_{11} & 0 \
-A^{-1}_{22}A_{21}A_{11}^{-1} & A_{22}^{-1}end{bmatrix}$$
You can check for yourself that this matrix is indeed the inverse by multiplying by the original matrix.
answered Jan 25 at 1:54
Josh B.Josh B.
1,0298
1,0298
$begingroup$
This was an excellent explanation and answer. Thank you for your input!
$endgroup$
– Matthew
Jan 25 at 3:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This was an excellent explanation and answer. Thank you for your input!
$endgroup$
– Matthew
Jan 25 at 3:17
$begingroup$
This was an excellent explanation and answer. Thank you for your input!
$endgroup$
– Matthew
Jan 25 at 3:17
$begingroup$
This was an excellent explanation and answer. Thank you for your input!
$endgroup$
– Matthew
Jan 25 at 3:17
add a comment |
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