Reciprocal relation derivation












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$begingroup$


I will use a snippet of the work done on Andrew Rex's textbook Finn's Thermal Physics to illustrate my confusion.



enter image description here



What I find confusing is this:



First, we are to suppose what happens we consider x is a function of y and z and isn't itself a dependent variable - that is to say that setting y and z will evaluate x, which then will evaluate f. B.3 is fine.



However, we then consider y is ALSO not a dependent variable, and it is then plugged in for B.3.



However, in order for B.4 to be valid, it has to be a function of $x$ and $z$.



So, to me, it seems that for B.5 to be a valid equation, BOTH $x$ and $y$ must be DEPENDENT variables on $z$. However, it says that we are meant to consider only two of the variables being independent, despite considering what would be implied if $x$ and $y$ became dependent. Does this make sense? I'm wondering how we can assume this equation still implies two independent variables despite considering what would happen if two of the variables $F$ is a function of were given dependencies, and it looks like a contradiction.










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I will use a snippet of the work done on Andrew Rex's textbook Finn's Thermal Physics to illustrate my confusion.



    enter image description here



    What I find confusing is this:



    First, we are to suppose what happens we consider x is a function of y and z and isn't itself a dependent variable - that is to say that setting y and z will evaluate x, which then will evaluate f. B.3 is fine.



    However, we then consider y is ALSO not a dependent variable, and it is then plugged in for B.3.



    However, in order for B.4 to be valid, it has to be a function of $x$ and $z$.



    So, to me, it seems that for B.5 to be a valid equation, BOTH $x$ and $y$ must be DEPENDENT variables on $z$. However, it says that we are meant to consider only two of the variables being independent, despite considering what would be implied if $x$ and $y$ became dependent. Does this make sense? I'm wondering how we can assume this equation still implies two independent variables despite considering what would happen if two of the variables $F$ is a function of were given dependencies, and it looks like a contradiction.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I will use a snippet of the work done on Andrew Rex's textbook Finn's Thermal Physics to illustrate my confusion.



      enter image description here



      What I find confusing is this:



      First, we are to suppose what happens we consider x is a function of y and z and isn't itself a dependent variable - that is to say that setting y and z will evaluate x, which then will evaluate f. B.3 is fine.



      However, we then consider y is ALSO not a dependent variable, and it is then plugged in for B.3.



      However, in order for B.4 to be valid, it has to be a function of $x$ and $z$.



      So, to me, it seems that for B.5 to be a valid equation, BOTH $x$ and $y$ must be DEPENDENT variables on $z$. However, it says that we are meant to consider only two of the variables being independent, despite considering what would be implied if $x$ and $y$ became dependent. Does this make sense? I'm wondering how we can assume this equation still implies two independent variables despite considering what would happen if two of the variables $F$ is a function of were given dependencies, and it looks like a contradiction.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I will use a snippet of the work done on Andrew Rex's textbook Finn's Thermal Physics to illustrate my confusion.



      enter image description here



      What I find confusing is this:



      First, we are to suppose what happens we consider x is a function of y and z and isn't itself a dependent variable - that is to say that setting y and z will evaluate x, which then will evaluate f. B.3 is fine.



      However, we then consider y is ALSO not a dependent variable, and it is then plugged in for B.3.



      However, in order for B.4 to be valid, it has to be a function of $x$ and $z$.



      So, to me, it seems that for B.5 to be a valid equation, BOTH $x$ and $y$ must be DEPENDENT variables on $z$. However, it says that we are meant to consider only two of the variables being independent, despite considering what would be implied if $x$ and $y$ became dependent. Does this make sense? I'm wondering how we can assume this equation still implies two independent variables despite considering what would happen if two of the variables $F$ is a function of were given dependencies, and it looks like a contradiction.







      multivariable-calculus






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Jan 29 at 20:18









      sangstarsangstar

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