Clarification on representing K-theory by vector bundles.












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In the Vector bundles and K-theory text by Hatcher, on page 40 under Ring structures it says:



'For elements of $K(X)$ represented by vector bundles $E_1$ and $E_2$ their product in $K(X)$ will be represented by the bundle $E_1 times E_2$, so for arbitrary elements of $K(X)$ represented by differences of vector bundles, their product in $K(X)$ is defined by the formula
$$(E_1 - E_1')(E_2 - E_2') = E_1 otimes E_2 - E_1 otimes E_2' - E_1' otimes E_2 + E_1' otimes E_2'$$



The second statement I get but I am a bit confused when representing elements of $K(X)$ by vector bundles, as opposed to differences of vector bundles. I'd have guessed that given a representative of $K(X)$ by a vector bundle $E_1$, this is equivalent to the difference $E_1 - 0$ where zero denotes the trivial bundle of zero, as only then do the two multiplications agree with one another. However not every difference $E - F$ can be represented as a $H - 0$, (just take rank(F)>rank(E)), so am I interpreting it wrong or when we are representing elements by vector bundles are we restricting to only the ones with a difference equivalence. Can anyone clarify what is meant?










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    In the Vector bundles and K-theory text by Hatcher, on page 40 under Ring structures it says:



    'For elements of $K(X)$ represented by vector bundles $E_1$ and $E_2$ their product in $K(X)$ will be represented by the bundle $E_1 times E_2$, so for arbitrary elements of $K(X)$ represented by differences of vector bundles, their product in $K(X)$ is defined by the formula
    $$(E_1 - E_1')(E_2 - E_2') = E_1 otimes E_2 - E_1 otimes E_2' - E_1' otimes E_2 + E_1' otimes E_2'$$



    The second statement I get but I am a bit confused when representing elements of $K(X)$ by vector bundles, as opposed to differences of vector bundles. I'd have guessed that given a representative of $K(X)$ by a vector bundle $E_1$, this is equivalent to the difference $E_1 - 0$ where zero denotes the trivial bundle of zero, as only then do the two multiplications agree with one another. However not every difference $E - F$ can be represented as a $H - 0$, (just take rank(F)>rank(E)), so am I interpreting it wrong or when we are representing elements by vector bundles are we restricting to only the ones with a difference equivalence. Can anyone clarify what is meant?










    share|cite|improve this question









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      $begingroup$


      In the Vector bundles and K-theory text by Hatcher, on page 40 under Ring structures it says:



      'For elements of $K(X)$ represented by vector bundles $E_1$ and $E_2$ their product in $K(X)$ will be represented by the bundle $E_1 times E_2$, so for arbitrary elements of $K(X)$ represented by differences of vector bundles, their product in $K(X)$ is defined by the formula
      $$(E_1 - E_1')(E_2 - E_2') = E_1 otimes E_2 - E_1 otimes E_2' - E_1' otimes E_2 + E_1' otimes E_2'$$



      The second statement I get but I am a bit confused when representing elements of $K(X)$ by vector bundles, as opposed to differences of vector bundles. I'd have guessed that given a representative of $K(X)$ by a vector bundle $E_1$, this is equivalent to the difference $E_1 - 0$ where zero denotes the trivial bundle of zero, as only then do the two multiplications agree with one another. However not every difference $E - F$ can be represented as a $H - 0$, (just take rank(F)>rank(E)), so am I interpreting it wrong or when we are representing elements by vector bundles are we restricting to only the ones with a difference equivalence. Can anyone clarify what is meant?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      In the Vector bundles and K-theory text by Hatcher, on page 40 under Ring structures it says:



      'For elements of $K(X)$ represented by vector bundles $E_1$ and $E_2$ their product in $K(X)$ will be represented by the bundle $E_1 times E_2$, so for arbitrary elements of $K(X)$ represented by differences of vector bundles, their product in $K(X)$ is defined by the formula
      $$(E_1 - E_1')(E_2 - E_2') = E_1 otimes E_2 - E_1 otimes E_2' - E_1' otimes E_2 + E_1' otimes E_2'$$



      The second statement I get but I am a bit confused when representing elements of $K(X)$ by vector bundles, as opposed to differences of vector bundles. I'd have guessed that given a representative of $K(X)$ by a vector bundle $E_1$, this is equivalent to the difference $E_1 - 0$ where zero denotes the trivial bundle of zero, as only then do the two multiplications agree with one another. However not every difference $E - F$ can be represented as a $H - 0$, (just take rank(F)>rank(E)), so am I interpreting it wrong or when we are representing elements by vector bundles are we restricting to only the ones with a difference equivalence. Can anyone clarify what is meant?







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      asked Jan 30 at 1:15









      jojojojo

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          To construct $K(X)$ one starts with the set of vector bundles over $X$ which is a additive semi-group when endowed with the Whitney sum. Then one formally completes this semi-group by adding the inverse. This exactly the same type of operation when one constructs $mathbb{Z}$ from $mathbb{N}$. With this in mind the generalization of the multiplication on $K(X)$ is similar to define the multiplication of $mathbb{Z}$ knowing the multiplication of $mathbb{N}$.






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            $begingroup$

            To construct $K(X)$ one starts with the set of vector bundles over $X$ which is a additive semi-group when endowed with the Whitney sum. Then one formally completes this semi-group by adding the inverse. This exactly the same type of operation when one constructs $mathbb{Z}$ from $mathbb{N}$. With this in mind the generalization of the multiplication on $K(X)$ is similar to define the multiplication of $mathbb{Z}$ knowing the multiplication of $mathbb{N}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              0












              $begingroup$

              To construct $K(X)$ one starts with the set of vector bundles over $X$ which is a additive semi-group when endowed with the Whitney sum. Then one formally completes this semi-group by adding the inverse. This exactly the same type of operation when one constructs $mathbb{Z}$ from $mathbb{N}$. With this in mind the generalization of the multiplication on $K(X)$ is similar to define the multiplication of $mathbb{Z}$ knowing the multiplication of $mathbb{N}$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









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                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                To construct $K(X)$ one starts with the set of vector bundles over $X$ which is a additive semi-group when endowed with the Whitney sum. Then one formally completes this semi-group by adding the inverse. This exactly the same type of operation when one constructs $mathbb{Z}$ from $mathbb{N}$. With this in mind the generalization of the multiplication on $K(X)$ is similar to define the multiplication of $mathbb{Z}$ knowing the multiplication of $mathbb{N}$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                To construct $K(X)$ one starts with the set of vector bundles over $X$ which is a additive semi-group when endowed with the Whitney sum. Then one formally completes this semi-group by adding the inverse. This exactly the same type of operation when one constructs $mathbb{Z}$ from $mathbb{N}$. With this in mind the generalization of the multiplication on $K(X)$ is similar to define the multiplication of $mathbb{Z}$ knowing the multiplication of $mathbb{N}$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 30 at 1:27









                Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

                60.1k11446




                60.1k11446






























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