Is this linear operator on polynomials with sup-norm bounded?












3












$begingroup$


Question: Let $mathcal{P}$ be the space of all polynomials (with real coefficients) on the real line, endowed with sup-norm (i.e., $|p| = sup_{0le xle 1}|p(x)|$).



For any fixed $n in mathbb{N}$, consider the linear functional $ell_n colon mathcal{P} to mathbb{R}$, where $ell_n(p)$
is equal to the coefficient of $x^n$ in $p$. Is $ell_n$ a bounded linear functional on this normed (but incomplete) space?



Attempt: Well I can see that $ell_0$ is a bounded linear functional with norm 1, but I don't know the answer in general. Thanks for your help!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    Question: Let $mathcal{P}$ be the space of all polynomials (with real coefficients) on the real line, endowed with sup-norm (i.e., $|p| = sup_{0le xle 1}|p(x)|$).



    For any fixed $n in mathbb{N}$, consider the linear functional $ell_n colon mathcal{P} to mathbb{R}$, where $ell_n(p)$
    is equal to the coefficient of $x^n$ in $p$. Is $ell_n$ a bounded linear functional on this normed (but incomplete) space?



    Attempt: Well I can see that $ell_0$ is a bounded linear functional with norm 1, but I don't know the answer in general. Thanks for your help!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Question: Let $mathcal{P}$ be the space of all polynomials (with real coefficients) on the real line, endowed with sup-norm (i.e., $|p| = sup_{0le xle 1}|p(x)|$).



      For any fixed $n in mathbb{N}$, consider the linear functional $ell_n colon mathcal{P} to mathbb{R}$, where $ell_n(p)$
      is equal to the coefficient of $x^n$ in $p$. Is $ell_n$ a bounded linear functional on this normed (but incomplete) space?



      Attempt: Well I can see that $ell_0$ is a bounded linear functional with norm 1, but I don't know the answer in general. Thanks for your help!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Question: Let $mathcal{P}$ be the space of all polynomials (with real coefficients) on the real line, endowed with sup-norm (i.e., $|p| = sup_{0le xle 1}|p(x)|$).



      For any fixed $n in mathbb{N}$, consider the linear functional $ell_n colon mathcal{P} to mathbb{R}$, where $ell_n(p)$
      is equal to the coefficient of $x^n$ in $p$. Is $ell_n$ a bounded linear functional on this normed (but incomplete) space?



      Attempt: Well I can see that $ell_0$ is a bounded linear functional with norm 1, but I don't know the answer in general. Thanks for your help!







      functional-analysis normed-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 30 at 1:37









      zzzzzz

      374




      374






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          The map $ell_n$ is not bounded for $ngeq1$. I will do the case $n$ odd, but the even case can be done with the same idea.



          Consider the function $f_m(x)=tfrac1m,sin(m^2 x)$. It's easy to check that $|f_m|=1/m$ and that
          $$
          f_m^{(2n-1)}(0)=m^{4n-3}.
          $$

          Let $p_m$ be the Taylor polynomial of $f_m$, of degree big enough so that $|f_m-p_m|<1/m$ on $[0,1]$. Then
          $$
          |p_m|leq|p_m-f_m|+|f_m|leqfrac2m,
          $$

          while
          $$
          ell_{2n-1}(p_m)=frac{m^{4n-3}}{(2n-1)!}.
          $$

          As we can do this for all $minmathbb N$, we obtain a sequence ${p_m}$ with $|p_m|to0$ and $ell_{2n-1}(p_m)xrightarrow[mtoinfty]{}infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Well, I don't see why ‖p‖ is what you claimed. ‖p‖ must be at least p(1) = 1-c, so if you choose c to be small, won't ‖p‖ be very close to 1?
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:46










          • $begingroup$
            You want $c$ to be big, but you are right, my example doesn't work.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 2:47










          • $begingroup$
            Please check the new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 3:38










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks! This is a nice counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 5:35



















          1












          $begingroup$

          Hint :
          Express your functional as :



          $$ell_n(x) = a_nx^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0$$



          Now, take $|ell_n(x)|$ and try to form an inequality involving the sup norm. Triangle inequality will be your friend !






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Contrariwise, I understood the defintion to be $$ ell_n(a_mx^m + a_{m-1}x^{m-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0) = a_n $$
            $endgroup$
            – GEdgar
            Jan 30 at 1:50










          • $begingroup$
            @GEdgar Yes, $ell_n$ is defined as this
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:48












          • $begingroup$
            -1: I fail to see how this can possibly lead to an answer. I'll be happy to be proven wrong.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 18:00












          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3












          $begingroup$

          The map $ell_n$ is not bounded for $ngeq1$. I will do the case $n$ odd, but the even case can be done with the same idea.



          Consider the function $f_m(x)=tfrac1m,sin(m^2 x)$. It's easy to check that $|f_m|=1/m$ and that
          $$
          f_m^{(2n-1)}(0)=m^{4n-3}.
          $$

          Let $p_m$ be the Taylor polynomial of $f_m$, of degree big enough so that $|f_m-p_m|<1/m$ on $[0,1]$. Then
          $$
          |p_m|leq|p_m-f_m|+|f_m|leqfrac2m,
          $$

          while
          $$
          ell_{2n-1}(p_m)=frac{m^{4n-3}}{(2n-1)!}.
          $$

          As we can do this for all $minmathbb N$, we obtain a sequence ${p_m}$ with $|p_m|to0$ and $ell_{2n-1}(p_m)xrightarrow[mtoinfty]{}infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Well, I don't see why ‖p‖ is what you claimed. ‖p‖ must be at least p(1) = 1-c, so if you choose c to be small, won't ‖p‖ be very close to 1?
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:46










          • $begingroup$
            You want $c$ to be big, but you are right, my example doesn't work.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 2:47










          • $begingroup$
            Please check the new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 3:38










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks! This is a nice counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 5:35
















          3












          $begingroup$

          The map $ell_n$ is not bounded for $ngeq1$. I will do the case $n$ odd, but the even case can be done with the same idea.



          Consider the function $f_m(x)=tfrac1m,sin(m^2 x)$. It's easy to check that $|f_m|=1/m$ and that
          $$
          f_m^{(2n-1)}(0)=m^{4n-3}.
          $$

          Let $p_m$ be the Taylor polynomial of $f_m$, of degree big enough so that $|f_m-p_m|<1/m$ on $[0,1]$. Then
          $$
          |p_m|leq|p_m-f_m|+|f_m|leqfrac2m,
          $$

          while
          $$
          ell_{2n-1}(p_m)=frac{m^{4n-3}}{(2n-1)!}.
          $$

          As we can do this for all $minmathbb N$, we obtain a sequence ${p_m}$ with $|p_m|to0$ and $ell_{2n-1}(p_m)xrightarrow[mtoinfty]{}infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Well, I don't see why ‖p‖ is what you claimed. ‖p‖ must be at least p(1) = 1-c, so if you choose c to be small, won't ‖p‖ be very close to 1?
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:46










          • $begingroup$
            You want $c$ to be big, but you are right, my example doesn't work.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 2:47










          • $begingroup$
            Please check the new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 3:38










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks! This is a nice counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 5:35














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          The map $ell_n$ is not bounded for $ngeq1$. I will do the case $n$ odd, but the even case can be done with the same idea.



          Consider the function $f_m(x)=tfrac1m,sin(m^2 x)$. It's easy to check that $|f_m|=1/m$ and that
          $$
          f_m^{(2n-1)}(0)=m^{4n-3}.
          $$

          Let $p_m$ be the Taylor polynomial of $f_m$, of degree big enough so that $|f_m-p_m|<1/m$ on $[0,1]$. Then
          $$
          |p_m|leq|p_m-f_m|+|f_m|leqfrac2m,
          $$

          while
          $$
          ell_{2n-1}(p_m)=frac{m^{4n-3}}{(2n-1)!}.
          $$

          As we can do this for all $minmathbb N$, we obtain a sequence ${p_m}$ with $|p_m|to0$ and $ell_{2n-1}(p_m)xrightarrow[mtoinfty]{}infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The map $ell_n$ is not bounded for $ngeq1$. I will do the case $n$ odd, but the even case can be done with the same idea.



          Consider the function $f_m(x)=tfrac1m,sin(m^2 x)$. It's easy to check that $|f_m|=1/m$ and that
          $$
          f_m^{(2n-1)}(0)=m^{4n-3}.
          $$

          Let $p_m$ be the Taylor polynomial of $f_m$, of degree big enough so that $|f_m-p_m|<1/m$ on $[0,1]$. Then
          $$
          |p_m|leq|p_m-f_m|+|f_m|leqfrac2m,
          $$

          while
          $$
          ell_{2n-1}(p_m)=frac{m^{4n-3}}{(2n-1)!}.
          $$

          As we can do this for all $minmathbb N$, we obtain a sequence ${p_m}$ with $|p_m|to0$ and $ell_{2n-1}(p_m)xrightarrow[mtoinfty]{}infty$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 30 at 3:37

























          answered Jan 30 at 2:05









          Martin ArgeramiMartin Argerami

          129k1184185




          129k1184185












          • $begingroup$
            Well, I don't see why ‖p‖ is what you claimed. ‖p‖ must be at least p(1) = 1-c, so if you choose c to be small, won't ‖p‖ be very close to 1?
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:46










          • $begingroup$
            You want $c$ to be big, but you are right, my example doesn't work.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 2:47










          • $begingroup$
            Please check the new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 3:38










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks! This is a nice counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 5:35


















          • $begingroup$
            Well, I don't see why ‖p‖ is what you claimed. ‖p‖ must be at least p(1) = 1-c, so if you choose c to be small, won't ‖p‖ be very close to 1?
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:46










          • $begingroup$
            You want $c$ to be big, but you are right, my example doesn't work.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 2:47










          • $begingroup$
            Please check the new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 3:38










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks! This is a nice counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 5:35
















          $begingroup$
          Well, I don't see why ‖p‖ is what you claimed. ‖p‖ must be at least p(1) = 1-c, so if you choose c to be small, won't ‖p‖ be very close to 1?
          $endgroup$
          – zzz
          Jan 30 at 2:46




          $begingroup$
          Well, I don't see why ‖p‖ is what you claimed. ‖p‖ must be at least p(1) = 1-c, so if you choose c to be small, won't ‖p‖ be very close to 1?
          $endgroup$
          – zzz
          Jan 30 at 2:46












          $begingroup$
          You want $c$ to be big, but you are right, my example doesn't work.
          $endgroup$
          – Martin Argerami
          Jan 30 at 2:47




          $begingroup$
          You want $c$ to be big, but you are right, my example doesn't work.
          $endgroup$
          – Martin Argerami
          Jan 30 at 2:47












          $begingroup$
          Please check the new version.
          $endgroup$
          – Martin Argerami
          Jan 30 at 3:38




          $begingroup$
          Please check the new version.
          $endgroup$
          – Martin Argerami
          Jan 30 at 3:38












          $begingroup$
          Thanks! This is a nice counterexample.
          $endgroup$
          – zzz
          Jan 30 at 5:35




          $begingroup$
          Thanks! This is a nice counterexample.
          $endgroup$
          – zzz
          Jan 30 at 5:35











          1












          $begingroup$

          Hint :
          Express your functional as :



          $$ell_n(x) = a_nx^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0$$



          Now, take $|ell_n(x)|$ and try to form an inequality involving the sup norm. Triangle inequality will be your friend !






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Contrariwise, I understood the defintion to be $$ ell_n(a_mx^m + a_{m-1}x^{m-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0) = a_n $$
            $endgroup$
            – GEdgar
            Jan 30 at 1:50










          • $begingroup$
            @GEdgar Yes, $ell_n$ is defined as this
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:48












          • $begingroup$
            -1: I fail to see how this can possibly lead to an answer. I'll be happy to be proven wrong.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 18:00
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Hint :
          Express your functional as :



          $$ell_n(x) = a_nx^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0$$



          Now, take $|ell_n(x)|$ and try to form an inequality involving the sup norm. Triangle inequality will be your friend !






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Contrariwise, I understood the defintion to be $$ ell_n(a_mx^m + a_{m-1}x^{m-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0) = a_n $$
            $endgroup$
            – GEdgar
            Jan 30 at 1:50










          • $begingroup$
            @GEdgar Yes, $ell_n$ is defined as this
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:48












          • $begingroup$
            -1: I fail to see how this can possibly lead to an answer. I'll be happy to be proven wrong.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 18:00














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Hint :
          Express your functional as :



          $$ell_n(x) = a_nx^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0$$



          Now, take $|ell_n(x)|$ and try to form an inequality involving the sup norm. Triangle inequality will be your friend !






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Hint :
          Express your functional as :



          $$ell_n(x) = a_nx^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0$$



          Now, take $|ell_n(x)|$ and try to form an inequality involving the sup norm. Triangle inequality will be your friend !







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 30 at 1:43









          RebellosRebellos

          15.6k31250




          15.6k31250








          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Contrariwise, I understood the defintion to be $$ ell_n(a_mx^m + a_{m-1}x^{m-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0) = a_n $$
            $endgroup$
            – GEdgar
            Jan 30 at 1:50










          • $begingroup$
            @GEdgar Yes, $ell_n$ is defined as this
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:48












          • $begingroup$
            -1: I fail to see how this can possibly lead to an answer. I'll be happy to be proven wrong.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 18:00














          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Contrariwise, I understood the defintion to be $$ ell_n(a_mx^m + a_{m-1}x^{m-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0) = a_n $$
            $endgroup$
            – GEdgar
            Jan 30 at 1:50










          • $begingroup$
            @GEdgar Yes, $ell_n$ is defined as this
            $endgroup$
            – zzz
            Jan 30 at 2:48












          • $begingroup$
            -1: I fail to see how this can possibly lead to an answer. I'll be happy to be proven wrong.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 30 at 18:00








          2




          2




          $begingroup$
          Contrariwise, I understood the defintion to be $$ ell_n(a_mx^m + a_{m-1}x^{m-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0) = a_n $$
          $endgroup$
          – GEdgar
          Jan 30 at 1:50




          $begingroup$
          Contrariwise, I understood the defintion to be $$ ell_n(a_mx^m + a_{m-1}x^{m-1} + dots + a_1x +a_0) = a_n $$
          $endgroup$
          – GEdgar
          Jan 30 at 1:50












          $begingroup$
          @GEdgar Yes, $ell_n$ is defined as this
          $endgroup$
          – zzz
          Jan 30 at 2:48






          $begingroup$
          @GEdgar Yes, $ell_n$ is defined as this
          $endgroup$
          – zzz
          Jan 30 at 2:48














          $begingroup$
          -1: I fail to see how this can possibly lead to an answer. I'll be happy to be proven wrong.
          $endgroup$
          – Martin Argerami
          Jan 30 at 18:00




          $begingroup$
          -1: I fail to see how this can possibly lead to an answer. I'll be happy to be proven wrong.
          $endgroup$
          – Martin Argerami
          Jan 30 at 18:00


















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