Showing that $sum_{n=-infty}^{infty}frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}=pi^2csc pi alpha cot pi alpha$












7












$begingroup$


I'm trying to show that $sum_{n=-infty}^{infty}frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}=pi^2csc pi alpha cot pi alpha$ for $0<alpha<1$. The method that I decided to use is contour (square) integrals and the residue theorem.



Progress



I noticed that $f(z)=frac{1}{z^2sinpi(z+alpha)}$ has poles at $z=0, k-alpha, kin mathbb{Z}$ with residues $$mbox{res}(f(z);0)=-pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha) \ mbox{res}(f(z);k-alpha)=frac{(-1)^k}{pi(k-alpha)^2}$$ which one can obtain by simply calculating. So then I considered a path $Gamma_N$ defined by a square with vertices at $N(1, i), N(1, -1), N(-1, i), N(-1, -i)$, $N in mathbb{N}$. So if we let $a_k$ be the list of poles of $f$ inside the region formed by $Gamma_N$, by the residue theorem, we get:



$$begin{align*} oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz &= 2pi isum_{a_i} mbox{res}(f(z);a_k) \ &= 2pi i left[ -pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{n=-N+1}^N frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}right] \ &to 2pi i left[ -pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{-infty}^{infty} frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}right] end{align*}$$



Now, supposing $oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz to 0$, we get $$0=-pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{-infty}^{infty} frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}$$ and then we're done.



But I cannot seem to prove that $oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz to 0$. I'm pretty sure the Estimation Lemma is used here, but I am not sure how to go about it. Is this even true? Are there any other ways of proving it?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Doing this rigorously with residues is tricky. It's easier to prove that starting from known expansions, especially 4.22.4 in the standard tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Professor Vector
    Sep 29 '17 at 4:11
















7












$begingroup$


I'm trying to show that $sum_{n=-infty}^{infty}frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}=pi^2csc pi alpha cot pi alpha$ for $0<alpha<1$. The method that I decided to use is contour (square) integrals and the residue theorem.



Progress



I noticed that $f(z)=frac{1}{z^2sinpi(z+alpha)}$ has poles at $z=0, k-alpha, kin mathbb{Z}$ with residues $$mbox{res}(f(z);0)=-pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha) \ mbox{res}(f(z);k-alpha)=frac{(-1)^k}{pi(k-alpha)^2}$$ which one can obtain by simply calculating. So then I considered a path $Gamma_N$ defined by a square with vertices at $N(1, i), N(1, -1), N(-1, i), N(-1, -i)$, $N in mathbb{N}$. So if we let $a_k$ be the list of poles of $f$ inside the region formed by $Gamma_N$, by the residue theorem, we get:



$$begin{align*} oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz &= 2pi isum_{a_i} mbox{res}(f(z);a_k) \ &= 2pi i left[ -pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{n=-N+1}^N frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}right] \ &to 2pi i left[ -pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{-infty}^{infty} frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}right] end{align*}$$



Now, supposing $oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz to 0$, we get $$0=-pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{-infty}^{infty} frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}$$ and then we're done.



But I cannot seem to prove that $oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz to 0$. I'm pretty sure the Estimation Lemma is used here, but I am not sure how to go about it. Is this even true? Are there any other ways of proving it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Doing this rigorously with residues is tricky. It's easier to prove that starting from known expansions, especially 4.22.4 in the standard tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Professor Vector
    Sep 29 '17 at 4:11














7












7








7


1



$begingroup$


I'm trying to show that $sum_{n=-infty}^{infty}frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}=pi^2csc pi alpha cot pi alpha$ for $0<alpha<1$. The method that I decided to use is contour (square) integrals and the residue theorem.



Progress



I noticed that $f(z)=frac{1}{z^2sinpi(z+alpha)}$ has poles at $z=0, k-alpha, kin mathbb{Z}$ with residues $$mbox{res}(f(z);0)=-pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha) \ mbox{res}(f(z);k-alpha)=frac{(-1)^k}{pi(k-alpha)^2}$$ which one can obtain by simply calculating. So then I considered a path $Gamma_N$ defined by a square with vertices at $N(1, i), N(1, -1), N(-1, i), N(-1, -i)$, $N in mathbb{N}$. So if we let $a_k$ be the list of poles of $f$ inside the region formed by $Gamma_N$, by the residue theorem, we get:



$$begin{align*} oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz &= 2pi isum_{a_i} mbox{res}(f(z);a_k) \ &= 2pi i left[ -pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{n=-N+1}^N frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}right] \ &to 2pi i left[ -pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{-infty}^{infty} frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}right] end{align*}$$



Now, supposing $oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz to 0$, we get $$0=-pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{-infty}^{infty} frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}$$ and then we're done.



But I cannot seem to prove that $oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz to 0$. I'm pretty sure the Estimation Lemma is used here, but I am not sure how to go about it. Is this even true? Are there any other ways of proving it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm trying to show that $sum_{n=-infty}^{infty}frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}=pi^2csc pi alpha cot pi alpha$ for $0<alpha<1$. The method that I decided to use is contour (square) integrals and the residue theorem.



Progress



I noticed that $f(z)=frac{1}{z^2sinpi(z+alpha)}$ has poles at $z=0, k-alpha, kin mathbb{Z}$ with residues $$mbox{res}(f(z);0)=-pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha) \ mbox{res}(f(z);k-alpha)=frac{(-1)^k}{pi(k-alpha)^2}$$ which one can obtain by simply calculating. So then I considered a path $Gamma_N$ defined by a square with vertices at $N(1, i), N(1, -1), N(-1, i), N(-1, -i)$, $N in mathbb{N}$. So if we let $a_k$ be the list of poles of $f$ inside the region formed by $Gamma_N$, by the residue theorem, we get:



$$begin{align*} oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz &= 2pi isum_{a_i} mbox{res}(f(z);a_k) \ &= 2pi i left[ -pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{n=-N+1}^N frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}right] \ &to 2pi i left[ -pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{-infty}^{infty} frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}right] end{align*}$$



Now, supposing $oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz to 0$, we get $$0=-pi cot (pi alpha) csc( pi alpha)+sum_{-infty}^{infty} frac{(-1)^n}{pi(n-alpha)^2}$$ and then we're done.



But I cannot seem to prove that $oint_{Gamma_N}f(z)dz to 0$. I'm pretty sure the Estimation Lemma is used here, but I am not sure how to go about it. Is this even true? Are there any other ways of proving it?







sequences-and-series residue-calculus






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edited Sep 29 '17 at 3:52







Jihoon Kang

















asked Sep 29 '17 at 3:31









Jihoon KangJihoon Kang

48329




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  • $begingroup$
    Doing this rigorously with residues is tricky. It's easier to prove that starting from known expansions, especially 4.22.4 in the standard tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Professor Vector
    Sep 29 '17 at 4:11


















  • $begingroup$
    Doing this rigorously with residues is tricky. It's easier to prove that starting from known expansions, especially 4.22.4 in the standard tables.
    $endgroup$
    – Professor Vector
    Sep 29 '17 at 4:11
















$begingroup$
Doing this rigorously with residues is tricky. It's easier to prove that starting from known expansions, especially 4.22.4 in the standard tables.
$endgroup$
– Professor Vector
Sep 29 '17 at 4:11




$begingroup$
Doing this rigorously with residues is tricky. It's easier to prove that starting from known expansions, especially 4.22.4 in the standard tables.
$endgroup$
– Professor Vector
Sep 29 '17 at 4:11










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Hint:
You can use an analogous function $$f(z) = frac{csc(pi z)}{(z-a)^2}$$ integrate around the square $Gamma_N$ with vertices $pm N pm Ni$, where $N$ is a half integer. Regarding your question of vanishing of the integral, prove the following:




$csc(z)$ is uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$




Since the denominator is of $O(1/z^2)$, this shows the integral tends to 0.





The following result is also handy at residue summation, they're not difficult to prove either.




$csc(z), cot(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ half integer.



$tan(z), sec(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ integer.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Cheers got it ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Jihoon Kang
    Sep 29 '17 at 7:45





















3












$begingroup$

In $(3)$ from this answer, it is shown that
$$
sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{k+z}=picsc(pi z)tag{1}
$$
Substituting $zmapsto-z$ in $(1)$ and taking the derivative yields
$$
sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{(k-z)^2}=pi^2csc(pi z)cot(pi z)tag{2}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$


    The OP had asked, "Are there any other ways of proving it?"




    We begin by writing the Fourier series,



    $$cos(alpha x)=a_0/2+sum_{n=1}^infty a_ncos(nx) tag1$$



    for $xin [-pi/pi]$. The Fourier coefficients in $(1)$ are given by



    $$begin{align}
    a_n&=frac{2}{pi}int_0^pi cos(alpha x)cos(nx),dx\\
    &=frac1pi (-1)^n sin(pi alpha)left(frac{1}{alpha +n}+frac{1}{alpha -n}right)tag2
    end{align}$$



    Substituting $2$ into $1$, dividing by $sin(pi y)$, and setting $x=0$ n $(2)$ reveals



    $$begin{align}
    pi csc(pi alpha)&=frac1alpha +sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nleft(frac{1}{alpha -n}+frac{1}{alpha +n}right)\\
    &=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{alpha-n}tag3
    end{align}$$



    Now differentiating with respect to $alpha$, enforcing the substitution $alphato alpha/pi$, and dividing by $pi^2$ yields the coveted result



    $$csc(alpha)cot(alpha)=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can.
      $endgroup$
      – Mark Viola
      Jan 30 at 5:03












    Your Answer





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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Hint:
    You can use an analogous function $$f(z) = frac{csc(pi z)}{(z-a)^2}$$ integrate around the square $Gamma_N$ with vertices $pm N pm Ni$, where $N$ is a half integer. Regarding your question of vanishing of the integral, prove the following:




    $csc(z)$ is uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$




    Since the denominator is of $O(1/z^2)$, this shows the integral tends to 0.





    The following result is also handy at residue summation, they're not difficult to prove either.




    $csc(z), cot(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ half integer.



    $tan(z), sec(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ integer.







    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Cheers got it ${}{}$
      $endgroup$
      – Jihoon Kang
      Sep 29 '17 at 7:45


















    1












    $begingroup$

    Hint:
    You can use an analogous function $$f(z) = frac{csc(pi z)}{(z-a)^2}$$ integrate around the square $Gamma_N$ with vertices $pm N pm Ni$, where $N$ is a half integer. Regarding your question of vanishing of the integral, prove the following:




    $csc(z)$ is uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$




    Since the denominator is of $O(1/z^2)$, this shows the integral tends to 0.





    The following result is also handy at residue summation, they're not difficult to prove either.




    $csc(z), cot(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ half integer.



    $tan(z), sec(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ integer.







    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Cheers got it ${}{}$
      $endgroup$
      – Jihoon Kang
      Sep 29 '17 at 7:45
















    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Hint:
    You can use an analogous function $$f(z) = frac{csc(pi z)}{(z-a)^2}$$ integrate around the square $Gamma_N$ with vertices $pm N pm Ni$, where $N$ is a half integer. Regarding your question of vanishing of the integral, prove the following:




    $csc(z)$ is uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$




    Since the denominator is of $O(1/z^2)$, this shows the integral tends to 0.





    The following result is also handy at residue summation, they're not difficult to prove either.




    $csc(z), cot(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ half integer.



    $tan(z), sec(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ integer.







    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Hint:
    You can use an analogous function $$f(z) = frac{csc(pi z)}{(z-a)^2}$$ integrate around the square $Gamma_N$ with vertices $pm N pm Ni$, where $N$ is a half integer. Regarding your question of vanishing of the integral, prove the following:




    $csc(z)$ is uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$




    Since the denominator is of $O(1/z^2)$, this shows the integral tends to 0.





    The following result is also handy at residue summation, they're not difficult to prove either.




    $csc(z), cot(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ half integer.



    $tan(z), sec(z)$ are uniformly bounded on $Gamma_N$ with $N$ integer.








    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Sep 29 '17 at 4:31

























    answered Sep 29 '17 at 4:23









    piscopisco

    12k21743




    12k21743












    • $begingroup$
      Cheers got it ${}{}$
      $endgroup$
      – Jihoon Kang
      Sep 29 '17 at 7:45




















    • $begingroup$
      Cheers got it ${}{}$
      $endgroup$
      – Jihoon Kang
      Sep 29 '17 at 7:45


















    $begingroup$
    Cheers got it ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Jihoon Kang
    Sep 29 '17 at 7:45






    $begingroup$
    Cheers got it ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Jihoon Kang
    Sep 29 '17 at 7:45













    3












    $begingroup$

    In $(3)$ from this answer, it is shown that
    $$
    sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{k+z}=picsc(pi z)tag{1}
    $$
    Substituting $zmapsto-z$ in $(1)$ and taking the derivative yields
    $$
    sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{(k-z)^2}=pi^2csc(pi z)cot(pi z)tag{2}
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      3












      $begingroup$

      In $(3)$ from this answer, it is shown that
      $$
      sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{k+z}=picsc(pi z)tag{1}
      $$
      Substituting $zmapsto-z$ in $(1)$ and taking the derivative yields
      $$
      sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{(k-z)^2}=pi^2csc(pi z)cot(pi z)tag{2}
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        In $(3)$ from this answer, it is shown that
        $$
        sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{k+z}=picsc(pi z)tag{1}
        $$
        Substituting $zmapsto-z$ in $(1)$ and taking the derivative yields
        $$
        sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{(k-z)^2}=pi^2csc(pi z)cot(pi z)tag{2}
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        In $(3)$ from this answer, it is shown that
        $$
        sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{k+z}=picsc(pi z)tag{1}
        $$
        Substituting $zmapsto-z$ in $(1)$ and taking the derivative yields
        $$
        sum_{kinmathbb{Z}}frac{(-1)^k}{(k-z)^2}=pi^2csc(pi z)cot(pi z)tag{2}
        $$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Sep 29 '17 at 5:22









        robjohnrobjohn

        270k27312640




        270k27312640























            1












            $begingroup$


            The OP had asked, "Are there any other ways of proving it?"




            We begin by writing the Fourier series,



            $$cos(alpha x)=a_0/2+sum_{n=1}^infty a_ncos(nx) tag1$$



            for $xin [-pi/pi]$. The Fourier coefficients in $(1)$ are given by



            $$begin{align}
            a_n&=frac{2}{pi}int_0^pi cos(alpha x)cos(nx),dx\\
            &=frac1pi (-1)^n sin(pi alpha)left(frac{1}{alpha +n}+frac{1}{alpha -n}right)tag2
            end{align}$$



            Substituting $2$ into $1$, dividing by $sin(pi y)$, and setting $x=0$ n $(2)$ reveals



            $$begin{align}
            pi csc(pi alpha)&=frac1alpha +sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nleft(frac{1}{alpha -n}+frac{1}{alpha +n}right)\\
            &=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{alpha-n}tag3
            end{align}$$



            Now differentiating with respect to $alpha$, enforcing the substitution $alphato alpha/pi$, and dividing by $pi^2$ yields the coveted result



            $$csc(alpha)cot(alpha)=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can.
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Jan 30 at 5:03
















            1












            $begingroup$


            The OP had asked, "Are there any other ways of proving it?"




            We begin by writing the Fourier series,



            $$cos(alpha x)=a_0/2+sum_{n=1}^infty a_ncos(nx) tag1$$



            for $xin [-pi/pi]$. The Fourier coefficients in $(1)$ are given by



            $$begin{align}
            a_n&=frac{2}{pi}int_0^pi cos(alpha x)cos(nx),dx\\
            &=frac1pi (-1)^n sin(pi alpha)left(frac{1}{alpha +n}+frac{1}{alpha -n}right)tag2
            end{align}$$



            Substituting $2$ into $1$, dividing by $sin(pi y)$, and setting $x=0$ n $(2)$ reveals



            $$begin{align}
            pi csc(pi alpha)&=frac1alpha +sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nleft(frac{1}{alpha -n}+frac{1}{alpha +n}right)\\
            &=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{alpha-n}tag3
            end{align}$$



            Now differentiating with respect to $alpha$, enforcing the substitution $alphato alpha/pi$, and dividing by $pi^2$ yields the coveted result



            $$csc(alpha)cot(alpha)=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can.
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Jan 30 at 5:03














            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$


            The OP had asked, "Are there any other ways of proving it?"




            We begin by writing the Fourier series,



            $$cos(alpha x)=a_0/2+sum_{n=1}^infty a_ncos(nx) tag1$$



            for $xin [-pi/pi]$. The Fourier coefficients in $(1)$ are given by



            $$begin{align}
            a_n&=frac{2}{pi}int_0^pi cos(alpha x)cos(nx),dx\\
            &=frac1pi (-1)^n sin(pi alpha)left(frac{1}{alpha +n}+frac{1}{alpha -n}right)tag2
            end{align}$$



            Substituting $2$ into $1$, dividing by $sin(pi y)$, and setting $x=0$ n $(2)$ reveals



            $$begin{align}
            pi csc(pi alpha)&=frac1alpha +sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nleft(frac{1}{alpha -n}+frac{1}{alpha +n}right)\\
            &=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{alpha-n}tag3
            end{align}$$



            Now differentiating with respect to $alpha$, enforcing the substitution $alphato alpha/pi$, and dividing by $pi^2$ yields the coveted result



            $$csc(alpha)cot(alpha)=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




            The OP had asked, "Are there any other ways of proving it?"




            We begin by writing the Fourier series,



            $$cos(alpha x)=a_0/2+sum_{n=1}^infty a_ncos(nx) tag1$$



            for $xin [-pi/pi]$. The Fourier coefficients in $(1)$ are given by



            $$begin{align}
            a_n&=frac{2}{pi}int_0^pi cos(alpha x)cos(nx),dx\\
            &=frac1pi (-1)^n sin(pi alpha)left(frac{1}{alpha +n}+frac{1}{alpha -n}right)tag2
            end{align}$$



            Substituting $2$ into $1$, dividing by $sin(pi y)$, and setting $x=0$ n $(2)$ reveals



            $$begin{align}
            pi csc(pi alpha)&=frac1alpha +sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nleft(frac{1}{alpha -n}+frac{1}{alpha +n}right)\\
            &=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{alpha-n}tag3
            end{align}$$



            Now differentiating with respect to $alpha$, enforcing the substitution $alphato alpha/pi$, and dividing by $pi^2$ yields the coveted result



            $$csc(alpha)cot(alpha)=sum_{n=-infty}^infty frac{(-1)^n}{(n-alpha)^2}$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 29 at 23:39









            Mark ViolaMark Viola

            134k1278176




            134k1278176












            • $begingroup$
              Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can.
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Jan 30 at 5:03


















            • $begingroup$
              Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can.
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Jan 30 at 5:03
















            $begingroup$
            Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can.
            $endgroup$
            – Mark Viola
            Jan 30 at 5:03




            $begingroup$
            Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can.
            $endgroup$
            – Mark Viola
            Jan 30 at 5:03


















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