Sums of vectors in $l_p$












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Suppose $x$ and $y$ are two vectors in $l_p$ (where $1leq p<infty$) such that $||x||=||y||=1$. Can we find a complex scalar $alpha$, with $|alpha|<1$ such that $||x+alpha y||>1$. I don't know the answer to this even in finite dimensional $l_p^n$. For example, in $l_1^n$ thsi can be rephrased as:



Given $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i|=sum_{i=1}^n|b_i|=1$, can we find $|alpha|<1$ such that $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i+alpha b_i|>1$?










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    Suppose $x$ and $y$ are two vectors in $l_p$ (where $1leq p<infty$) such that $||x||=||y||=1$. Can we find a complex scalar $alpha$, with $|alpha|<1$ such that $||x+alpha y||>1$. I don't know the answer to this even in finite dimensional $l_p^n$. For example, in $l_1^n$ thsi can be rephrased as:



    Given $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i|=sum_{i=1}^n|b_i|=1$, can we find $|alpha|<1$ such that $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i+alpha b_i|>1$?










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      $begingroup$


      Suppose $x$ and $y$ are two vectors in $l_p$ (where $1leq p<infty$) such that $||x||=||y||=1$. Can we find a complex scalar $alpha$, with $|alpha|<1$ such that $||x+alpha y||>1$. I don't know the answer to this even in finite dimensional $l_p^n$. For example, in $l_1^n$ thsi can be rephrased as:



      Given $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i|=sum_{i=1}^n|b_i|=1$, can we find $|alpha|<1$ such that $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i+alpha b_i|>1$?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Suppose $x$ and $y$ are two vectors in $l_p$ (where $1leq p<infty$) such that $||x||=||y||=1$. Can we find a complex scalar $alpha$, with $|alpha|<1$ such that $||x+alpha y||>1$. I don't know the answer to this even in finite dimensional $l_p^n$. For example, in $l_1^n$ thsi can be rephrased as:



      Given $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i|=sum_{i=1}^n|b_i|=1$, can we find $|alpha|<1$ such that $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i+alpha b_i|>1$?







      real-analysis complex-analysis functional-analysis banach-spaces






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      asked Jan 30 at 1:12









      MarkusMarkus

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          2 Answers
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          Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
          $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
          To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



          If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
          $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
          which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
          $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
          This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



          EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



          From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



          Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



          Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



          So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
            $endgroup$
            – Timothy Hedgeworth
            Jan 30 at 1:40








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 1:43








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
            $endgroup$
            – Theo
            Jan 30 at 2:26










          • $begingroup$
            @Theo I'll have to think about it.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 2:30










          • $begingroup$
            @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 4:17





















          1












          $begingroup$

          If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





          Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





          Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





          Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





          (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











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            2 Answers
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            3












            $begingroup$

            Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
            $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
            To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



            If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
            $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
            which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
            $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
            This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



            EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



            From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



            Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



            Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



            So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Timothy Hedgeworth
              Jan 30 at 1:40








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 1:43








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
              $endgroup$
              – Theo
              Jan 30 at 2:26










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I'll have to think about it.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 2:30










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 4:17


















            3












            $begingroup$

            Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
            $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
            To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



            If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
            $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
            which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
            $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
            This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



            EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



            From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



            Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



            Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



            So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Timothy Hedgeworth
              Jan 30 at 1:40








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 1:43








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
              $endgroup$
              – Theo
              Jan 30 at 2:26










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I'll have to think about it.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 2:30










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 4:17
















            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
            $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
            To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



            If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
            $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
            which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
            $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
            This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



            EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



            From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



            Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



            Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



            So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
            $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
            To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



            If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
            $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
            which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
            $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
            This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



            EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



            From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



            Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



            Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



            So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 30 at 4:24

























            answered Jan 30 at 1:31









            Theo BenditTheo Bendit

            20.1k12354




            20.1k12354








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Timothy Hedgeworth
              Jan 30 at 1:40








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 1:43








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
              $endgroup$
              – Theo
              Jan 30 at 2:26










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I'll have to think about it.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 2:30










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 4:17
















            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Timothy Hedgeworth
              Jan 30 at 1:40








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 1:43








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
              $endgroup$
              – Theo
              Jan 30 at 2:26










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I'll have to think about it.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 2:30










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 4:17










            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
            $endgroup$
            – Timothy Hedgeworth
            Jan 30 at 1:40






            $begingroup$
            I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
            $endgroup$
            – Timothy Hedgeworth
            Jan 30 at 1:40






            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 1:43






            $begingroup$
            @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 1:43






            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
            $endgroup$
            – Theo
            Jan 30 at 2:26




            $begingroup$
            But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
            $endgroup$
            – Theo
            Jan 30 at 2:26












            $begingroup$
            @Theo I'll have to think about it.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 2:30




            $begingroup$
            @Theo I'll have to think about it.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 2:30












            $begingroup$
            @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 4:17






            $begingroup$
            @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 4:17













            1












            $begingroup$

            If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





            Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





            Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





            Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





            (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





              Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





              Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





              Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





              (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





                Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





                Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





                Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





                (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





                Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





                Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





                Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





                (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Jan 30 at 15:22

























                answered Jan 30 at 15:06









                David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

                61.6k43995




                61.6k43995






























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