Sums of vectors in $l_p$












0












$begingroup$


Suppose $x$ and $y$ are two vectors in $l_p$ (where $1leq p<infty$) such that $||x||=||y||=1$. Can we find a complex scalar $alpha$, with $|alpha|<1$ such that $||x+alpha y||>1$. I don't know the answer to this even in finite dimensional $l_p^n$. For example, in $l_1^n$ thsi can be rephrased as:



Given $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i|=sum_{i=1}^n|b_i|=1$, can we find $|alpha|<1$ such that $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i+alpha b_i|>1$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Suppose $x$ and $y$ are two vectors in $l_p$ (where $1leq p<infty$) such that $||x||=||y||=1$. Can we find a complex scalar $alpha$, with $|alpha|<1$ such that $||x+alpha y||>1$. I don't know the answer to this even in finite dimensional $l_p^n$. For example, in $l_1^n$ thsi can be rephrased as:



    Given $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i|=sum_{i=1}^n|b_i|=1$, can we find $|alpha|<1$ such that $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i+alpha b_i|>1$?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Suppose $x$ and $y$ are two vectors in $l_p$ (where $1leq p<infty$) such that $||x||=||y||=1$. Can we find a complex scalar $alpha$, with $|alpha|<1$ such that $||x+alpha y||>1$. I don't know the answer to this even in finite dimensional $l_p^n$. For example, in $l_1^n$ thsi can be rephrased as:



      Given $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i|=sum_{i=1}^n|b_i|=1$, can we find $|alpha|<1$ such that $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i+alpha b_i|>1$?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Suppose $x$ and $y$ are two vectors in $l_p$ (where $1leq p<infty$) such that $||x||=||y||=1$. Can we find a complex scalar $alpha$, with $|alpha|<1$ such that $||x+alpha y||>1$. I don't know the answer to this even in finite dimensional $l_p^n$. For example, in $l_1^n$ thsi can be rephrased as:



      Given $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i|=sum_{i=1}^n|b_i|=1$, can we find $|alpha|<1$ such that $displaystyle sum_{i=1}^n|a_i+alpha b_i|>1$?







      real-analysis complex-analysis functional-analysis banach-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 30 at 1:12









      MarkusMarkus

      933511




      933511






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
          $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
          To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



          If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
          $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
          which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
          $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
          This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



          EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



          From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



          Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



          Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



          So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
            $endgroup$
            – Timothy Hedgeworth
            Jan 30 at 1:40








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 1:43








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
            $endgroup$
            – Theo
            Jan 30 at 2:26










          • $begingroup$
            @Theo I'll have to think about it.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 2:30










          • $begingroup$
            @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 4:17





















          1












          $begingroup$

          If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





          Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





          Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





          Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





          (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$














            Your Answer





            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            });
            });
            }, "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function() {
            var channelOptions = {
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            };
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
            createEditor();
            });
            }
            else {
            createEditor();
            }
            });

            function createEditor() {
            StackExchange.prepareEditor({
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: true,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            imageUploader: {
            brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
            contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
            allowUrls: true
            },
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            });


            }
            });














            draft saved

            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3092965%2fsums-of-vectors-in-l-p%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown

























            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            3












            $begingroup$

            Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
            $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
            To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



            If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
            $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
            which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
            $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
            This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



            EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



            From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



            Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



            Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



            So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Timothy Hedgeworth
              Jan 30 at 1:40








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 1:43








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
              $endgroup$
              – Theo
              Jan 30 at 2:26










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I'll have to think about it.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 2:30










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 4:17


















            3












            $begingroup$

            Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
            $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
            To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



            If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
            $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
            which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
            $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
            This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



            EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



            From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



            Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



            Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



            So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Timothy Hedgeworth
              Jan 30 at 1:40








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 1:43








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
              $endgroup$
              – Theo
              Jan 30 at 2:26










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I'll have to think about it.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 2:30










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 4:17
















            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
            $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
            To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



            If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
            $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
            which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
            $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
            This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



            EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



            From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



            Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



            Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



            So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Suppose $X$ is an arbitrary normed linear space, and $|x| = 1$. Then, at least one of $|x + y|$ and $|x - y|$ must be greater than or equal to $1$, as
            $$|x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2.$$
            To get strict inequality, assume further that $y neq 0$ and $X$ is a strictly convex space, meaning that the unit sphere of $X$ contains no (non-degenerate) line segments (e.g. $l_p$ spaces for $1 < p < infty$). Equivalently, if $v, w$ have norm $1$, then $frac{v + w}{2}$ has norm strictly less than $1$.



            If $|x + y|, |x - y| le 1$, then
            $$2 ge |x + y| + |x - y| ge |2x| = 2,$$
            which means that $|x + y| = |x - y| = 1$. Note that
            $$x = frac{(x + y) + (x - y)}{2}.$$
            This contradicts strict convexity. Thus, in a strictly convex space, $|x + y| > 1$ or $|x - y| > 1$.



            EDIT: This property fails if and only if $X$ has a subspace that is isometrically isomorphic to $ell^2_infty$. Fix $|x| = |y| = 1$, and suppose $|x + alpha y| le 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$.



            From the above methods, we can conclude that $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for all $|alpha| < 1$, as if $|x + alpha y| < 1$, then $|x - alpha y| > 1$. By continuity, this implies $|x + alpha y| = 1$ for $|alpha| = 1$ too.



            Now, if $|alpha| = 1$, then $|alpha^{-1}| = 1$, so $|y + alpha x| = |alpha| |x + alpha^{-1}y| = 1$. Note that $y$ is the midpoint of $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$, all of which have norm $1$, so every point on the line segment between $y + alpha x$ and $y - alpha x$ have norm $1$. That is, if $|alpha| le 1$, we have $|y + alpha x| = |x + alpha y| = 1$.



            Now, it's easy to see that $|alpha x + beta y| = max{|alpha|, |beta|}$, by simply dividing by $alpha$ or $beta$; whichever has largest modulus. Our linear isometry is defined by $x mapsto (1, 0)$ and $y mapsto (0, 1)$ (note that $x neq y$, as $x = y$ would imply that $|x + 2y| = 3$, not $2$).



            So, all we need to do is show that $ell_1$ does not contain such a subspace (this will also prove the property for $ell_1^n$, as it can be identified with a subspace of $ell_1$). Certainly in the real case, such a subspace does exist: $ell_1^2$ (map $(1/2, 1/2)$ to $(1, 0)$ and $(1/2, -1/2)$ to $(0, 1)$), so the property fails. For the complex case, I don't know.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 30 at 4:24

























            answered Jan 30 at 1:31









            Theo BenditTheo Bendit

            20.1k12354




            20.1k12354








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Timothy Hedgeworth
              Jan 30 at 1:40








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 1:43








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
              $endgroup$
              – Theo
              Jan 30 at 2:26










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I'll have to think about it.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 2:30










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 4:17
















            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Timothy Hedgeworth
              Jan 30 at 1:40








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 1:43








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
              $endgroup$
              – Theo
              Jan 30 at 2:26










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I'll have to think about it.
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 2:30










            • $begingroup$
              @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
              $endgroup$
              – Theo Bendit
              Jan 30 at 4:17










            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
            $endgroup$
            – Timothy Hedgeworth
            Jan 30 at 1:40






            $begingroup$
            I believe the question requires $|alpha| < 1$.
            $endgroup$
            – Timothy Hedgeworth
            Jan 30 at 1:40






            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 1:43






            $begingroup$
            @TimothyHedgeworth Note that there's no norm restriction on $y$, so it doesn't matter.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 1:43






            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
            $endgroup$
            – Theo
            Jan 30 at 2:26




            $begingroup$
            But $l_1$ is not strictly convex. Can you get this in $l_1$ as well, this is in fact the case I am mostly interested in.?
            $endgroup$
            – Theo
            Jan 30 at 2:26












            $begingroup$
            @Theo I'll have to think about it.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 2:30




            $begingroup$
            @Theo I'll have to think about it.
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 2:30












            $begingroup$
            @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 4:17






            $begingroup$
            @Theo I can show that this property fails if and only if $X$ contains a subspace isometrically isomorphic to $ell_infty^2$. I'm not certain how to show that no such subspace exists in $ell_1$ (over the complex numbers).
            $endgroup$
            – Theo Bendit
            Jan 30 at 4:17













            1












            $begingroup$

            If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





            Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





            Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





            Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





            (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





              Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





              Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





              Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





              (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





                Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





                Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





                Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





                (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                If $1<p<infty$ we've seen it's just strict convexity. The result is false for $p=infty$. For $p=1$ there's a sort of complex version of strict convexity; although the unit sphere of $L^1$ does contain line segments it does not contain any (flat) complex disks:





                Lemma. If $z,winBbb C$ and $wne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|z+e^{it}w|,dt>|z|$.





                Proof: This is clear for $z=0$. If $zne0$ then wlog $z=1$ and then wlog $w=r>0$. The integral is equal to $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}phi(t),dt$, where $$phi(t)=frac 12(|1+e^{it}r|+|1-e^{it}r|).$$The triangle inequality shows that $phi(t)ge1$, and it's clear that $phi(pi/2)>1$, hence the integral is greater than $1$ since $phi$ is continuous.





                Cor. If $f,gin L^1(mu)$ and $gne0$ then $frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}||f+e^{it}g||_1,dt>||f||_1$.





                (So there exists $alpha$ with $|alpha|=1$ and $||f+alpha g||_1>||f||_1$, and hence you can also get $|alpha|<1$.)







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Jan 30 at 15:22

























                answered Jan 30 at 15:06









                David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

                61.6k43995




                61.6k43995






























                    draft saved

                    draft discarded




















































                    Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                    • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                    But avoid



                    • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                    • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                    Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                    To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function () {
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3092965%2fsums-of-vectors-in-l-p%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                    }
                    );

                    Post as a guest















                    Required, but never shown





















































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown

































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown







                    Popular posts from this blog

                    'app-layout' is not a known element: how to share Component with different Modules

                    android studio warns about leanback feature tag usage required on manifest while using Unity exported app?

                    WPF add header to Image with URL pettitions [duplicate]