Differentiate Legendre’s equation $m$ times using Leibniz' rule for differentiating products












0












$begingroup$


$$(1-x^2)u''(x)-2xu'(x) + ell(ell+1)u(x)=0tag{1}$$




Assume that $m$ is non-negative, differentiate $(1)$ (Legendre’s equation) $m$ times using Leibniz' theorem for differentiation to show that
$$(1-x^2)v''(x)-2x(m+1)v'(x)+(ell -m)(ell + m + 1)v(x)=0tag{*}$$
where $$v(x)equiv frac{d^mu}{dx^m}$$




From Leibniz' theorem the $m^{text{th}}$ devivative of a product $fg$ is
$$(fg)^m=f^{(m)}g+mf^{(m-1)}g^{(1)}+cdots+frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}f^{(m-n)}g^{(n)}$$
where $f^{(m)}$ is the $m^{text{th}}$ derivative of $f$, etc.



Hence, differentiating $(1)$ term by term,



$$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[(1-x^2)u''right]=(1-x^2)u^{(m+2)}-2mxu^{(m+1)}-color{red}{2}m(m-1)u^{(m)}$$



I find the next term to be



$$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[-2xu'right]=-2xu^{(m+1)}-2mu^{(m)}$$



and the last term is



$$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[ell(ell+1)uright]=ell(ell+1)u^{(m)}$$



Substituting these into $(1)$ gives



$$(1-x^2)u^{(m+2)}-2xmu^{(m+1)}-color{red}{2}m(m-1)u^{(m)}-2xu^{(m+1)}-2mu^{(m)} + ell(ell+1)u^{(m)}=0$$



which on simplification is



$$(1-x^2)v''(x)-2x(m+1)v'(x)+left[ell(ell+1)-2m^2right]v(x)=0$$



which is not the same as $(*)$.



In the solution the author gives, everything in my working is exactly the same except from the parts marked in red, according to the author's solution the $2$ should not be there (it should be unity). But the derivative of $2x$ is $2$. So I fail to understand why it should not be $2$.



Can someone please explain where I have gone wrong here?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    $$(1-x^2)u''(x)-2xu'(x) + ell(ell+1)u(x)=0tag{1}$$




    Assume that $m$ is non-negative, differentiate $(1)$ (Legendre’s equation) $m$ times using Leibniz' theorem for differentiation to show that
    $$(1-x^2)v''(x)-2x(m+1)v'(x)+(ell -m)(ell + m + 1)v(x)=0tag{*}$$
    where $$v(x)equiv frac{d^mu}{dx^m}$$




    From Leibniz' theorem the $m^{text{th}}$ devivative of a product $fg$ is
    $$(fg)^m=f^{(m)}g+mf^{(m-1)}g^{(1)}+cdots+frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}f^{(m-n)}g^{(n)}$$
    where $f^{(m)}$ is the $m^{text{th}}$ derivative of $f$, etc.



    Hence, differentiating $(1)$ term by term,



    $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[(1-x^2)u''right]=(1-x^2)u^{(m+2)}-2mxu^{(m+1)}-color{red}{2}m(m-1)u^{(m)}$$



    I find the next term to be



    $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[-2xu'right]=-2xu^{(m+1)}-2mu^{(m)}$$



    and the last term is



    $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[ell(ell+1)uright]=ell(ell+1)u^{(m)}$$



    Substituting these into $(1)$ gives



    $$(1-x^2)u^{(m+2)}-2xmu^{(m+1)}-color{red}{2}m(m-1)u^{(m)}-2xu^{(m+1)}-2mu^{(m)} + ell(ell+1)u^{(m)}=0$$



    which on simplification is



    $$(1-x^2)v''(x)-2x(m+1)v'(x)+left[ell(ell+1)-2m^2right]v(x)=0$$



    which is not the same as $(*)$.



    In the solution the author gives, everything in my working is exactly the same except from the parts marked in red, according to the author's solution the $2$ should not be there (it should be unity). But the derivative of $2x$ is $2$. So I fail to understand why it should not be $2$.



    Can someone please explain where I have gone wrong here?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0


      1



      $begingroup$


      $$(1-x^2)u''(x)-2xu'(x) + ell(ell+1)u(x)=0tag{1}$$




      Assume that $m$ is non-negative, differentiate $(1)$ (Legendre’s equation) $m$ times using Leibniz' theorem for differentiation to show that
      $$(1-x^2)v''(x)-2x(m+1)v'(x)+(ell -m)(ell + m + 1)v(x)=0tag{*}$$
      where $$v(x)equiv frac{d^mu}{dx^m}$$




      From Leibniz' theorem the $m^{text{th}}$ devivative of a product $fg$ is
      $$(fg)^m=f^{(m)}g+mf^{(m-1)}g^{(1)}+cdots+frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}f^{(m-n)}g^{(n)}$$
      where $f^{(m)}$ is the $m^{text{th}}$ derivative of $f$, etc.



      Hence, differentiating $(1)$ term by term,



      $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[(1-x^2)u''right]=(1-x^2)u^{(m+2)}-2mxu^{(m+1)}-color{red}{2}m(m-1)u^{(m)}$$



      I find the next term to be



      $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[-2xu'right]=-2xu^{(m+1)}-2mu^{(m)}$$



      and the last term is



      $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[ell(ell+1)uright]=ell(ell+1)u^{(m)}$$



      Substituting these into $(1)$ gives



      $$(1-x^2)u^{(m+2)}-2xmu^{(m+1)}-color{red}{2}m(m-1)u^{(m)}-2xu^{(m+1)}-2mu^{(m)} + ell(ell+1)u^{(m)}=0$$



      which on simplification is



      $$(1-x^2)v''(x)-2x(m+1)v'(x)+left[ell(ell+1)-2m^2right]v(x)=0$$



      which is not the same as $(*)$.



      In the solution the author gives, everything in my working is exactly the same except from the parts marked in red, according to the author's solution the $2$ should not be there (it should be unity). But the derivative of $2x$ is $2$. So I fail to understand why it should not be $2$.



      Can someone please explain where I have gone wrong here?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      $$(1-x^2)u''(x)-2xu'(x) + ell(ell+1)u(x)=0tag{1}$$




      Assume that $m$ is non-negative, differentiate $(1)$ (Legendre’s equation) $m$ times using Leibniz' theorem for differentiation to show that
      $$(1-x^2)v''(x)-2x(m+1)v'(x)+(ell -m)(ell + m + 1)v(x)=0tag{*}$$
      where $$v(x)equiv frac{d^mu}{dx^m}$$




      From Leibniz' theorem the $m^{text{th}}$ devivative of a product $fg$ is
      $$(fg)^m=f^{(m)}g+mf^{(m-1)}g^{(1)}+cdots+frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}f^{(m-n)}g^{(n)}$$
      where $f^{(m)}$ is the $m^{text{th}}$ derivative of $f$, etc.



      Hence, differentiating $(1)$ term by term,



      $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[(1-x^2)u''right]=(1-x^2)u^{(m+2)}-2mxu^{(m+1)}-color{red}{2}m(m-1)u^{(m)}$$



      I find the next term to be



      $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[-2xu'right]=-2xu^{(m+1)}-2mu^{(m)}$$



      and the last term is



      $$frac{d^m}{dx^m}left[ell(ell+1)uright]=ell(ell+1)u^{(m)}$$



      Substituting these into $(1)$ gives



      $$(1-x^2)u^{(m+2)}-2xmu^{(m+1)}-color{red}{2}m(m-1)u^{(m)}-2xu^{(m+1)}-2mu^{(m)} + ell(ell+1)u^{(m)}=0$$



      which on simplification is



      $$(1-x^2)v''(x)-2x(m+1)v'(x)+left[ell(ell+1)-2m^2right]v(x)=0$$



      which is not the same as $(*)$.



      In the solution the author gives, everything in my working is exactly the same except from the parts marked in red, according to the author's solution the $2$ should not be there (it should be unity). But the derivative of $2x$ is $2$. So I fail to understand why it should not be $2$.



      Can someone please explain where I have gone wrong here?







      ordinary-differential-equations derivatives legendre-polynomials






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      asked Jan 6 at 23:17









      BLAZEBLAZE

      6,076112756




      6,076112756






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          $$frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}=frac{m(m-1)}{2}$$ and this cancels the $2$ in red.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Perfect answer, thank you very much
            $endgroup$
            – BLAZE
            Jan 6 at 23:43






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Sure thing .. reminds me of my own "oops" moments, which are plentiful ; )
            $endgroup$
            – Ben W
            Jan 6 at 23:44













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          1 Answer
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          active

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          $begingroup$

          $$frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}=frac{m(m-1)}{2}$$ and this cancels the $2$ in red.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Perfect answer, thank you very much
            $endgroup$
            – BLAZE
            Jan 6 at 23:43






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Sure thing .. reminds me of my own "oops" moments, which are plentiful ; )
            $endgroup$
            – Ben W
            Jan 6 at 23:44


















          1












          $begingroup$

          $$frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}=frac{m(m-1)}{2}$$ and this cancels the $2$ in red.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Perfect answer, thank you very much
            $endgroup$
            – BLAZE
            Jan 6 at 23:43






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Sure thing .. reminds me of my own "oops" moments, which are plentiful ; )
            $endgroup$
            – Ben W
            Jan 6 at 23:44
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          $$frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}=frac{m(m-1)}{2}$$ and this cancels the $2$ in red.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          $$frac{m!}{n!(m-n)!}=frac{m(m-1)}{2}$$ and this cancels the $2$ in red.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 6 at 23:38









          Ben WBen W

          2,234615




          2,234615












          • $begingroup$
            Perfect answer, thank you very much
            $endgroup$
            – BLAZE
            Jan 6 at 23:43






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Sure thing .. reminds me of my own "oops" moments, which are plentiful ; )
            $endgroup$
            – Ben W
            Jan 6 at 23:44




















          • $begingroup$
            Perfect answer, thank you very much
            $endgroup$
            – BLAZE
            Jan 6 at 23:43






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Sure thing .. reminds me of my own "oops" moments, which are plentiful ; )
            $endgroup$
            – Ben W
            Jan 6 at 23:44


















          $begingroup$
          Perfect answer, thank you very much
          $endgroup$
          – BLAZE
          Jan 6 at 23:43




          $begingroup$
          Perfect answer, thank you very much
          $endgroup$
          – BLAZE
          Jan 6 at 23:43




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Sure thing .. reminds me of my own "oops" moments, which are plentiful ; )
          $endgroup$
          – Ben W
          Jan 6 at 23:44






          $begingroup$
          Sure thing .. reminds me of my own "oops" moments, which are plentiful ; )
          $endgroup$
          – Ben W
          Jan 6 at 23:44




















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