Show that the motion is a circular path












2














Question:



The position $mathbf r$ of a particle satisfies



$$ ddot {mathbf r} = fdot {mathbf r} times mathbf k$$



where $f$ is a known constant and $mathbf k$ is the unit vector in the $z$ direction.



Given that $dot {mathbf r} cdot mathbf k equiv 0$, show that the path of the particle is a circle.





Attempt:



Firstly, there are a few quantities that I know are constant:



$$frac{d}{dt}big(|dot{mathbf r}|^2 big) = 2ddot {mathbf r} cdot dot {mathbf r} = 2f(dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) cdot dot{mathbf r} = 0 implies |dot{mathbf r}|^2 equiv text{constant}$$



$$frac{d}{dt}big(mathbf r cdot mathbf kbig) = dot{mathbf r} cdot mathbf k =0 implies {mathbf r} cdot mathbf k equiv text{constant}$$



Moreover, I noticed that



$$frac{d^2dot{mathbf r}}{dt^2} = f^2dot{mathbf r}$$



and solving this gives



$$dot{mathbf r}(t) = mathbf c_1 cos(ft)+mathbf c_2 sin (ft)$$



but I am unsure how to deduce from this that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle.










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    2














    Question:



    The position $mathbf r$ of a particle satisfies



    $$ ddot {mathbf r} = fdot {mathbf r} times mathbf k$$



    where $f$ is a known constant and $mathbf k$ is the unit vector in the $z$ direction.



    Given that $dot {mathbf r} cdot mathbf k equiv 0$, show that the path of the particle is a circle.





    Attempt:



    Firstly, there are a few quantities that I know are constant:



    $$frac{d}{dt}big(|dot{mathbf r}|^2 big) = 2ddot {mathbf r} cdot dot {mathbf r} = 2f(dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) cdot dot{mathbf r} = 0 implies |dot{mathbf r}|^2 equiv text{constant}$$



    $$frac{d}{dt}big(mathbf r cdot mathbf kbig) = dot{mathbf r} cdot mathbf k =0 implies {mathbf r} cdot mathbf k equiv text{constant}$$



    Moreover, I noticed that



    $$frac{d^2dot{mathbf r}}{dt^2} = f^2dot{mathbf r}$$



    and solving this gives



    $$dot{mathbf r}(t) = mathbf c_1 cos(ft)+mathbf c_2 sin (ft)$$



    but I am unsure how to deduce from this that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      2












      2








      2







      Question:



      The position $mathbf r$ of a particle satisfies



      $$ ddot {mathbf r} = fdot {mathbf r} times mathbf k$$



      where $f$ is a known constant and $mathbf k$ is the unit vector in the $z$ direction.



      Given that $dot {mathbf r} cdot mathbf k equiv 0$, show that the path of the particle is a circle.





      Attempt:



      Firstly, there are a few quantities that I know are constant:



      $$frac{d}{dt}big(|dot{mathbf r}|^2 big) = 2ddot {mathbf r} cdot dot {mathbf r} = 2f(dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) cdot dot{mathbf r} = 0 implies |dot{mathbf r}|^2 equiv text{constant}$$



      $$frac{d}{dt}big(mathbf r cdot mathbf kbig) = dot{mathbf r} cdot mathbf k =0 implies {mathbf r} cdot mathbf k equiv text{constant}$$



      Moreover, I noticed that



      $$frac{d^2dot{mathbf r}}{dt^2} = f^2dot{mathbf r}$$



      and solving this gives



      $$dot{mathbf r}(t) = mathbf c_1 cos(ft)+mathbf c_2 sin (ft)$$



      but I am unsure how to deduce from this that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Question:



      The position $mathbf r$ of a particle satisfies



      $$ ddot {mathbf r} = fdot {mathbf r} times mathbf k$$



      where $f$ is a known constant and $mathbf k$ is the unit vector in the $z$ direction.



      Given that $dot {mathbf r} cdot mathbf k equiv 0$, show that the path of the particle is a circle.





      Attempt:



      Firstly, there are a few quantities that I know are constant:



      $$frac{d}{dt}big(|dot{mathbf r}|^2 big) = 2ddot {mathbf r} cdot dot {mathbf r} = 2f(dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) cdot dot{mathbf r} = 0 implies |dot{mathbf r}|^2 equiv text{constant}$$



      $$frac{d}{dt}big(mathbf r cdot mathbf kbig) = dot{mathbf r} cdot mathbf k =0 implies {mathbf r} cdot mathbf k equiv text{constant}$$



      Moreover, I noticed that



      $$frac{d^2dot{mathbf r}}{dt^2} = f^2dot{mathbf r}$$



      and solving this gives



      $$dot{mathbf r}(t) = mathbf c_1 cos(ft)+mathbf c_2 sin (ft)$$



      but I am unsure how to deduce from this that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle.







      differential-equations classical-mechanics






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      asked Nov 20 '18 at 1:54









      glowstonetrees

      2,285318




      2,285318






















          3 Answers
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          Let $mathbf u = mathbf r + frac1f (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)$, we have
          $$dot{mathbf u} = dot{mathbf r} + frac1f(ddot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)
          = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) times mathbf k)
          = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r}cdot mathbf k) mathbf k - dot{mathbf r}) = mathbf 0$$

          This means $mathbf u$ is a constant. Notice
          $$frac{d}{dt}|mathbf r - mathbf u|^2
          = 2(mathbf r-mathbf u)cdot dot{mathbf r} = -frac{2}{f} (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)cdot dot{mathbf r} = mathbf 0$$

          The expression $|mathbf r-mathbf u|^2 = R^2$ is a constant. The particle is moving on a sphere
          centered at $mathbf u$ with radius $R$. Together with what you know $mathbf r cdot mathbf k = $ constant.
          The particle is moving along the intersection of a sphere and a plane, i.e. a circle.






          share|cite|improve this answer































            1














            Insert the solution you found of the derived equations into the original equations.
            $$
            -fvec c_1sin(ft)+fvec c_2cos(ft)=f(vec c_1×vec k)cos(ft)+f(vec c_2×vec k)sin(ft).
            $$

            Comparing coefficients,
            $$
            vec c_2=~~vec c_1×vec k\
            vec c_1=-vec c_2×vec k\
            $$

            is only possible if both vectors are orthogonal to $vec k$, of the same length and orthogonal to each other. With $vec k=(0,0,1)$ you get $vec c_1=(a,b,0)$ and $vec c_2=(b,-a,0)$. This means that $dot{vec r}$ follows a circular curve, and that remains preserved under integration, the integration constant is the midpoint around which $vec r$ circulates.






            share|cite|improve this answer





























              0














              One way is to show that the curvature is constant. Recall that
              $$kappa = frac{||mathbf{v}(t) times mathbf{a}(t)||}{||mathbf{v}(t)||^3} = frac{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t) times ddot{mathbf{r}}(t)||}{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t)||^3} $$
              Which should be straightforward since you have $dot{mathbf{r}}(t)$.



              It might help to write:
              begin{align}
              dot{mathbf{r}}(t) &= mathbf{c_1}cos(ft) + mathbf{c_2}sin(ft)\
              &= left[begin{array}{c}c_{11}\c_{12}\c_{13}end{array}right]cos(ft) + left[begin{array}{c}c_{21}\c_{22}\c_{23}end{array}right]sin(ft)\
              &=(c_1cos(ft) + c_2sin(ft))hat{mathbf{i}} + (c_3cos(ft) + c_4sin(ft))hat{mathbf{j}} + (c_5cos(ft) + c_6sin(ft))hat{mathbf{k}}
              end{align}

              Then just do the grinding to get the final result.



              EDIT: I just noticed that it might be easier to replace quantities like $ddot{mathbf{r}}(t) = fdot{mathbf{r}}(t) times mathbf{k}$ into the curvature expression as well.



              EDIT2: It's been a while since I"ve dealt with this... Showing that torsion is $0$ is important too.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • I am not quite familiar with the concept of "curvature", so could you please kindly explain why this quantity being constant implies that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle?
                – glowstonetrees
                Nov 20 '18 at 2:14










              • @glowstonetrees It actually takes a little while to get there if you haven't seen curvature before! This answer can get you started on that path though if you want to head down that way: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1505638/…
                – AlkaKadri
                Nov 20 '18 at 2:28











              Your Answer





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              3 Answers
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              3 Answers
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              4














              Let $mathbf u = mathbf r + frac1f (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)$, we have
              $$dot{mathbf u} = dot{mathbf r} + frac1f(ddot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)
              = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) times mathbf k)
              = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r}cdot mathbf k) mathbf k - dot{mathbf r}) = mathbf 0$$

              This means $mathbf u$ is a constant. Notice
              $$frac{d}{dt}|mathbf r - mathbf u|^2
              = 2(mathbf r-mathbf u)cdot dot{mathbf r} = -frac{2}{f} (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)cdot dot{mathbf r} = mathbf 0$$

              The expression $|mathbf r-mathbf u|^2 = R^2$ is a constant. The particle is moving on a sphere
              centered at $mathbf u$ with radius $R$. Together with what you know $mathbf r cdot mathbf k = $ constant.
              The particle is moving along the intersection of a sphere and a plane, i.e. a circle.






              share|cite|improve this answer




























                4














                Let $mathbf u = mathbf r + frac1f (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)$, we have
                $$dot{mathbf u} = dot{mathbf r} + frac1f(ddot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)
                = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) times mathbf k)
                = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r}cdot mathbf k) mathbf k - dot{mathbf r}) = mathbf 0$$

                This means $mathbf u$ is a constant. Notice
                $$frac{d}{dt}|mathbf r - mathbf u|^2
                = 2(mathbf r-mathbf u)cdot dot{mathbf r} = -frac{2}{f} (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)cdot dot{mathbf r} = mathbf 0$$

                The expression $|mathbf r-mathbf u|^2 = R^2$ is a constant. The particle is moving on a sphere
                centered at $mathbf u$ with radius $R$. Together with what you know $mathbf r cdot mathbf k = $ constant.
                The particle is moving along the intersection of a sphere and a plane, i.e. a circle.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  4












                  4








                  4






                  Let $mathbf u = mathbf r + frac1f (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)$, we have
                  $$dot{mathbf u} = dot{mathbf r} + frac1f(ddot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)
                  = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) times mathbf k)
                  = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r}cdot mathbf k) mathbf k - dot{mathbf r}) = mathbf 0$$

                  This means $mathbf u$ is a constant. Notice
                  $$frac{d}{dt}|mathbf r - mathbf u|^2
                  = 2(mathbf r-mathbf u)cdot dot{mathbf r} = -frac{2}{f} (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)cdot dot{mathbf r} = mathbf 0$$

                  The expression $|mathbf r-mathbf u|^2 = R^2$ is a constant. The particle is moving on a sphere
                  centered at $mathbf u$ with radius $R$. Together with what you know $mathbf r cdot mathbf k = $ constant.
                  The particle is moving along the intersection of a sphere and a plane, i.e. a circle.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Let $mathbf u = mathbf r + frac1f (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)$, we have
                  $$dot{mathbf u} = dot{mathbf r} + frac1f(ddot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)
                  = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k) times mathbf k)
                  = dot{mathbf r} + ((dot{mathbf r}cdot mathbf k) mathbf k - dot{mathbf r}) = mathbf 0$$

                  This means $mathbf u$ is a constant. Notice
                  $$frac{d}{dt}|mathbf r - mathbf u|^2
                  = 2(mathbf r-mathbf u)cdot dot{mathbf r} = -frac{2}{f} (dot{mathbf r} times mathbf k)cdot dot{mathbf r} = mathbf 0$$

                  The expression $|mathbf r-mathbf u|^2 = R^2$ is a constant. The particle is moving on a sphere
                  centered at $mathbf u$ with radius $R$. Together with what you know $mathbf r cdot mathbf k = $ constant.
                  The particle is moving along the intersection of a sphere and a plane, i.e. a circle.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 20 '18 at 13:19









                  glowstonetrees

                  2,285318




                  2,285318










                  answered Nov 20 '18 at 2:44









                  achille hui

                  95.4k5130256




                  95.4k5130256























                      1














                      Insert the solution you found of the derived equations into the original equations.
                      $$
                      -fvec c_1sin(ft)+fvec c_2cos(ft)=f(vec c_1×vec k)cos(ft)+f(vec c_2×vec k)sin(ft).
                      $$

                      Comparing coefficients,
                      $$
                      vec c_2=~~vec c_1×vec k\
                      vec c_1=-vec c_2×vec k\
                      $$

                      is only possible if both vectors are orthogonal to $vec k$, of the same length and orthogonal to each other. With $vec k=(0,0,1)$ you get $vec c_1=(a,b,0)$ and $vec c_2=(b,-a,0)$. This means that $dot{vec r}$ follows a circular curve, and that remains preserved under integration, the integration constant is the midpoint around which $vec r$ circulates.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        1














                        Insert the solution you found of the derived equations into the original equations.
                        $$
                        -fvec c_1sin(ft)+fvec c_2cos(ft)=f(vec c_1×vec k)cos(ft)+f(vec c_2×vec k)sin(ft).
                        $$

                        Comparing coefficients,
                        $$
                        vec c_2=~~vec c_1×vec k\
                        vec c_1=-vec c_2×vec k\
                        $$

                        is only possible if both vectors are orthogonal to $vec k$, of the same length and orthogonal to each other. With $vec k=(0,0,1)$ you get $vec c_1=(a,b,0)$ and $vec c_2=(b,-a,0)$. This means that $dot{vec r}$ follows a circular curve, and that remains preserved under integration, the integration constant is the midpoint around which $vec r$ circulates.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          1












                          1








                          1






                          Insert the solution you found of the derived equations into the original equations.
                          $$
                          -fvec c_1sin(ft)+fvec c_2cos(ft)=f(vec c_1×vec k)cos(ft)+f(vec c_2×vec k)sin(ft).
                          $$

                          Comparing coefficients,
                          $$
                          vec c_2=~~vec c_1×vec k\
                          vec c_1=-vec c_2×vec k\
                          $$

                          is only possible if both vectors are orthogonal to $vec k$, of the same length and orthogonal to each other. With $vec k=(0,0,1)$ you get $vec c_1=(a,b,0)$ and $vec c_2=(b,-a,0)$. This means that $dot{vec r}$ follows a circular curve, and that remains preserved under integration, the integration constant is the midpoint around which $vec r$ circulates.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Insert the solution you found of the derived equations into the original equations.
                          $$
                          -fvec c_1sin(ft)+fvec c_2cos(ft)=f(vec c_1×vec k)cos(ft)+f(vec c_2×vec k)sin(ft).
                          $$

                          Comparing coefficients,
                          $$
                          vec c_2=~~vec c_1×vec k\
                          vec c_1=-vec c_2×vec k\
                          $$

                          is only possible if both vectors are orthogonal to $vec k$, of the same length and orthogonal to each other. With $vec k=(0,0,1)$ you get $vec c_1=(a,b,0)$ and $vec c_2=(b,-a,0)$. This means that $dot{vec r}$ follows a circular curve, and that remains preserved under integration, the integration constant is the midpoint around which $vec r$ circulates.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 20 '18 at 10:11









                          LutzL

                          56k42054




                          56k42054























                              0














                              One way is to show that the curvature is constant. Recall that
                              $$kappa = frac{||mathbf{v}(t) times mathbf{a}(t)||}{||mathbf{v}(t)||^3} = frac{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t) times ddot{mathbf{r}}(t)||}{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t)||^3} $$
                              Which should be straightforward since you have $dot{mathbf{r}}(t)$.



                              It might help to write:
                              begin{align}
                              dot{mathbf{r}}(t) &= mathbf{c_1}cos(ft) + mathbf{c_2}sin(ft)\
                              &= left[begin{array}{c}c_{11}\c_{12}\c_{13}end{array}right]cos(ft) + left[begin{array}{c}c_{21}\c_{22}\c_{23}end{array}right]sin(ft)\
                              &=(c_1cos(ft) + c_2sin(ft))hat{mathbf{i}} + (c_3cos(ft) + c_4sin(ft))hat{mathbf{j}} + (c_5cos(ft) + c_6sin(ft))hat{mathbf{k}}
                              end{align}

                              Then just do the grinding to get the final result.



                              EDIT: I just noticed that it might be easier to replace quantities like $ddot{mathbf{r}}(t) = fdot{mathbf{r}}(t) times mathbf{k}$ into the curvature expression as well.



                              EDIT2: It's been a while since I"ve dealt with this... Showing that torsion is $0$ is important too.






                              share|cite|improve this answer























                              • I am not quite familiar with the concept of "curvature", so could you please kindly explain why this quantity being constant implies that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle?
                                – glowstonetrees
                                Nov 20 '18 at 2:14










                              • @glowstonetrees It actually takes a little while to get there if you haven't seen curvature before! This answer can get you started on that path though if you want to head down that way: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1505638/…
                                – AlkaKadri
                                Nov 20 '18 at 2:28
















                              0














                              One way is to show that the curvature is constant. Recall that
                              $$kappa = frac{||mathbf{v}(t) times mathbf{a}(t)||}{||mathbf{v}(t)||^3} = frac{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t) times ddot{mathbf{r}}(t)||}{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t)||^3} $$
                              Which should be straightforward since you have $dot{mathbf{r}}(t)$.



                              It might help to write:
                              begin{align}
                              dot{mathbf{r}}(t) &= mathbf{c_1}cos(ft) + mathbf{c_2}sin(ft)\
                              &= left[begin{array}{c}c_{11}\c_{12}\c_{13}end{array}right]cos(ft) + left[begin{array}{c}c_{21}\c_{22}\c_{23}end{array}right]sin(ft)\
                              &=(c_1cos(ft) + c_2sin(ft))hat{mathbf{i}} + (c_3cos(ft) + c_4sin(ft))hat{mathbf{j}} + (c_5cos(ft) + c_6sin(ft))hat{mathbf{k}}
                              end{align}

                              Then just do the grinding to get the final result.



                              EDIT: I just noticed that it might be easier to replace quantities like $ddot{mathbf{r}}(t) = fdot{mathbf{r}}(t) times mathbf{k}$ into the curvature expression as well.



                              EDIT2: It's been a while since I"ve dealt with this... Showing that torsion is $0$ is important too.






                              share|cite|improve this answer























                              • I am not quite familiar with the concept of "curvature", so could you please kindly explain why this quantity being constant implies that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle?
                                – glowstonetrees
                                Nov 20 '18 at 2:14










                              • @glowstonetrees It actually takes a little while to get there if you haven't seen curvature before! This answer can get you started on that path though if you want to head down that way: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1505638/…
                                – AlkaKadri
                                Nov 20 '18 at 2:28














                              0












                              0








                              0






                              One way is to show that the curvature is constant. Recall that
                              $$kappa = frac{||mathbf{v}(t) times mathbf{a}(t)||}{||mathbf{v}(t)||^3} = frac{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t) times ddot{mathbf{r}}(t)||}{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t)||^3} $$
                              Which should be straightforward since you have $dot{mathbf{r}}(t)$.



                              It might help to write:
                              begin{align}
                              dot{mathbf{r}}(t) &= mathbf{c_1}cos(ft) + mathbf{c_2}sin(ft)\
                              &= left[begin{array}{c}c_{11}\c_{12}\c_{13}end{array}right]cos(ft) + left[begin{array}{c}c_{21}\c_{22}\c_{23}end{array}right]sin(ft)\
                              &=(c_1cos(ft) + c_2sin(ft))hat{mathbf{i}} + (c_3cos(ft) + c_4sin(ft))hat{mathbf{j}} + (c_5cos(ft) + c_6sin(ft))hat{mathbf{k}}
                              end{align}

                              Then just do the grinding to get the final result.



                              EDIT: I just noticed that it might be easier to replace quantities like $ddot{mathbf{r}}(t) = fdot{mathbf{r}}(t) times mathbf{k}$ into the curvature expression as well.



                              EDIT2: It's been a while since I"ve dealt with this... Showing that torsion is $0$ is important too.






                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              One way is to show that the curvature is constant. Recall that
                              $$kappa = frac{||mathbf{v}(t) times mathbf{a}(t)||}{||mathbf{v}(t)||^3} = frac{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t) times ddot{mathbf{r}}(t)||}{||dot{mathbf{r}}(t)||^3} $$
                              Which should be straightforward since you have $dot{mathbf{r}}(t)$.



                              It might help to write:
                              begin{align}
                              dot{mathbf{r}}(t) &= mathbf{c_1}cos(ft) + mathbf{c_2}sin(ft)\
                              &= left[begin{array}{c}c_{11}\c_{12}\c_{13}end{array}right]cos(ft) + left[begin{array}{c}c_{21}\c_{22}\c_{23}end{array}right]sin(ft)\
                              &=(c_1cos(ft) + c_2sin(ft))hat{mathbf{i}} + (c_3cos(ft) + c_4sin(ft))hat{mathbf{j}} + (c_5cos(ft) + c_6sin(ft))hat{mathbf{k}}
                              end{align}

                              Then just do the grinding to get the final result.



                              EDIT: I just noticed that it might be easier to replace quantities like $ddot{mathbf{r}}(t) = fdot{mathbf{r}}(t) times mathbf{k}$ into the curvature expression as well.



                              EDIT2: It's been a while since I"ve dealt with this... Showing that torsion is $0$ is important too.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Nov 20 '18 at 2:16

























                              answered Nov 20 '18 at 2:10









                              AlkaKadri

                              1,459411




                              1,459411












                              • I am not quite familiar with the concept of "curvature", so could you please kindly explain why this quantity being constant implies that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle?
                                – glowstonetrees
                                Nov 20 '18 at 2:14










                              • @glowstonetrees It actually takes a little while to get there if you haven't seen curvature before! This answer can get you started on that path though if you want to head down that way: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1505638/…
                                – AlkaKadri
                                Nov 20 '18 at 2:28


















                              • I am not quite familiar with the concept of "curvature", so could you please kindly explain why this quantity being constant implies that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle?
                                – glowstonetrees
                                Nov 20 '18 at 2:14










                              • @glowstonetrees It actually takes a little while to get there if you haven't seen curvature before! This answer can get you started on that path though if you want to head down that way: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1505638/…
                                – AlkaKadri
                                Nov 20 '18 at 2:28
















                              I am not quite familiar with the concept of "curvature", so could you please kindly explain why this quantity being constant implies that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle?
                              – glowstonetrees
                              Nov 20 '18 at 2:14




                              I am not quite familiar with the concept of "curvature", so could you please kindly explain why this quantity being constant implies that $mathbf r$ traces out a circle?
                              – glowstonetrees
                              Nov 20 '18 at 2:14












                              @glowstonetrees It actually takes a little while to get there if you haven't seen curvature before! This answer can get you started on that path though if you want to head down that way: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1505638/…
                              – AlkaKadri
                              Nov 20 '18 at 2:28




                              @glowstonetrees It actually takes a little while to get there if you haven't seen curvature before! This answer can get you started on that path though if you want to head down that way: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1505638/…
                              – AlkaKadri
                              Nov 20 '18 at 2:28


















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