Showing a statement is true for all positive integers regarding a complex function












2












$begingroup$


I am not looking for an answer, for both methods I have one. I'd simply like to check if the statement needs to be proved by induction or simply through rearrangement.



Statement:



For $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^n}$ show that for all positive integers $k$, $f(z)$ satisfies $f(z)=z+z^2+z^4+...+z^{2^{k-1}}+f(z^{2^{k}})$.



My approach:
begin{align}
z+z^2+z^4+...+z^{2^{k-1}}+f(z^{2^{k}})&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=0}^infty (z^{2^k})^{2^n}\&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^{k+n}}\&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=k}^infty z^{2^n}\&=sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^n}\&=f(z)
end{align}



Would this approach be correct? Or should I prove this statement by induction?










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$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    I am not looking for an answer, for both methods I have one. I'd simply like to check if the statement needs to be proved by induction or simply through rearrangement.



    Statement:



    For $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^n}$ show that for all positive integers $k$, $f(z)$ satisfies $f(z)=z+z^2+z^4+...+z^{2^{k-1}}+f(z^{2^{k}})$.



    My approach:
    begin{align}
    z+z^2+z^4+...+z^{2^{k-1}}+f(z^{2^{k}})&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=0}^infty (z^{2^k})^{2^n}\&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^{k+n}}\&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=k}^infty z^{2^n}\&=sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^n}\&=f(z)
    end{align}



    Would this approach be correct? Or should I prove this statement by induction?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I am not looking for an answer, for both methods I have one. I'd simply like to check if the statement needs to be proved by induction or simply through rearrangement.



      Statement:



      For $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^n}$ show that for all positive integers $k$, $f(z)$ satisfies $f(z)=z+z^2+z^4+...+z^{2^{k-1}}+f(z^{2^{k}})$.



      My approach:
      begin{align}
      z+z^2+z^4+...+z^{2^{k-1}}+f(z^{2^{k}})&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=0}^infty (z^{2^k})^{2^n}\&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^{k+n}}\&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=k}^infty z^{2^n}\&=sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^n}\&=f(z)
      end{align}



      Would this approach be correct? Or should I prove this statement by induction?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am not looking for an answer, for both methods I have one. I'd simply like to check if the statement needs to be proved by induction or simply through rearrangement.



      Statement:



      For $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^n}$ show that for all positive integers $k$, $f(z)$ satisfies $f(z)=z+z^2+z^4+...+z^{2^{k-1}}+f(z^{2^{k}})$.



      My approach:
      begin{align}
      z+z^2+z^4+...+z^{2^{k-1}}+f(z^{2^{k}})&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=0}^infty (z^{2^k})^{2^n}\&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^{k+n}}\&=sum_{n=0}^{k-1} z^{2^n}+sum_{n=k}^infty z^{2^n}\&=sum_{n=0}^infty z^{2^n}\&=f(z)
      end{align}



      Would this approach be correct? Or should I prove this statement by induction?







      complex-analysis power-series






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      asked Jan 6 at 18:12









      Ezhelin900Ezhelin900

      152




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          Yes, this is correct. Both approaches are suitable






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            $begingroup$

            Personally I would have proved it by induction, since "prove this for all positive integers" or whatever often screams that, but your method is valid as well. (And probably the easier of the two, too.)






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
              2






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              active

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              active

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              0












              $begingroup$

              Yes, this is correct. Both approaches are suitable






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              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Yes, this is correct. Both approaches are suitable






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Yes, this is correct. Both approaches are suitable






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Yes, this is correct. Both approaches are suitable







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 13 at 1:10









                  piece_and_lovepiece_and_love

                  283




                  283























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      Personally I would have proved it by induction, since "prove this for all positive integers" or whatever often screams that, but your method is valid as well. (And probably the easier of the two, too.)






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Personally I would have proved it by induction, since "prove this for all positive integers" or whatever often screams that, but your method is valid as well. (And probably the easier of the two, too.)






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          Personally I would have proved it by induction, since "prove this for all positive integers" or whatever often screams that, but your method is valid as well. (And probably the easier of the two, too.)






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Personally I would have proved it by induction, since "prove this for all positive integers" or whatever often screams that, but your method is valid as well. (And probably the easier of the two, too.)







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 6 at 18:26









                          Eevee TrainerEevee Trainer

                          5,8121936




                          5,8121936






























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