Does pointwise convergence to a continuous function in compact set imply uniform convergence? [duplicate]












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  • Does pointwise convergence of continuous functions on a compact set to a continuous limit imply uniform convergence on that set?

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Suppose $K$ is a compact set in $mathbb{R}$, $f_n$ is a sequence of functions such that $f_n$ converges pointwise to a continuous function $f$, does it imply $f_n$ converges uniformly to $f$ in $K$ ?



Edit:
(addition of Hypothesis)$f_n$ is continuous for each $n$



If it is not true, what example justifies it ?










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Jan 18 at 19:37


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    I believe this is the statement of Dini’s Theorem. In that case, yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @FedePoncio I believe Dini's Theorem has a monotonicity assumption
    $endgroup$
    – angryavian
    Jan 18 at 17:30










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, Dini requires $f_n$ to be either increasing or decreasing. Without that condition I don’t think it holds
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:30










  • $begingroup$
    @angryavian Yes, thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Lokk here for various counterexamples showing all hypotheses of Dini's theorem are necessary.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 18 at 17:44
















1












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Does pointwise convergence of continuous functions on a compact set to a continuous limit imply uniform convergence on that set?

    1 answer




Suppose $K$ is a compact set in $mathbb{R}$, $f_n$ is a sequence of functions such that $f_n$ converges pointwise to a continuous function $f$, does it imply $f_n$ converges uniformly to $f$ in $K$ ?



Edit:
(addition of Hypothesis)$f_n$ is continuous for each $n$



If it is not true, what example justifies it ?










share|cite|improve this question











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marked as duplicate by Hans Lundmark, RRL real-analysis
Users with the  real-analysis badge can single-handedly close real-analysis questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

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Jan 18 at 19:37


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    I believe this is the statement of Dini’s Theorem. In that case, yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @FedePoncio I believe Dini's Theorem has a monotonicity assumption
    $endgroup$
    – angryavian
    Jan 18 at 17:30










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, Dini requires $f_n$ to be either increasing or decreasing. Without that condition I don’t think it holds
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:30










  • $begingroup$
    @angryavian Yes, thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Lokk here for various counterexamples showing all hypotheses of Dini's theorem are necessary.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 18 at 17:44














1












1








1





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Does pointwise convergence of continuous functions on a compact set to a continuous limit imply uniform convergence on that set?

    1 answer




Suppose $K$ is a compact set in $mathbb{R}$, $f_n$ is a sequence of functions such that $f_n$ converges pointwise to a continuous function $f$, does it imply $f_n$ converges uniformly to $f$ in $K$ ?



Edit:
(addition of Hypothesis)$f_n$ is continuous for each $n$



If it is not true, what example justifies it ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Does pointwise convergence of continuous functions on a compact set to a continuous limit imply uniform convergence on that set?

    1 answer




Suppose $K$ is a compact set in $mathbb{R}$, $f_n$ is a sequence of functions such that $f_n$ converges pointwise to a continuous function $f$, does it imply $f_n$ converges uniformly to $f$ in $K$ ?



Edit:
(addition of Hypothesis)$f_n$ is continuous for each $n$



If it is not true, what example justifies it ?





This question already has an answer here:




  • Does pointwise convergence of continuous functions on a compact set to a continuous limit imply uniform convergence on that set?

    1 answer








real-analysis uniform-convergence






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 18 at 17:36







Vinay Sipani

















asked Jan 18 at 17:25









Vinay SipaniVinay Sipani

635




635




marked as duplicate by Hans Lundmark, RRL real-analysis
Users with the  real-analysis badge can single-handedly close real-analysis questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

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Jan 18 at 19:37


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Hans Lundmark, RRL real-analysis
Users with the  real-analysis badge can single-handedly close real-analysis questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

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Jan 18 at 19:37


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    I believe this is the statement of Dini’s Theorem. In that case, yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @FedePoncio I believe Dini's Theorem has a monotonicity assumption
    $endgroup$
    – angryavian
    Jan 18 at 17:30










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, Dini requires $f_n$ to be either increasing or decreasing. Without that condition I don’t think it holds
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:30










  • $begingroup$
    @angryavian Yes, thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Lokk here for various counterexamples showing all hypotheses of Dini's theorem are necessary.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 18 at 17:44


















  • $begingroup$
    I believe this is the statement of Dini’s Theorem. In that case, yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @FedePoncio I believe Dini's Theorem has a monotonicity assumption
    $endgroup$
    – angryavian
    Jan 18 at 17:30










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, Dini requires $f_n$ to be either increasing or decreasing. Without that condition I don’t think it holds
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:30










  • $begingroup$
    @angryavian Yes, thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Fede Poncio
    Jan 18 at 17:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Lokk here for various counterexamples showing all hypotheses of Dini's theorem are necessary.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 18 at 17:44
















$begingroup$
I believe this is the statement of Dini’s Theorem. In that case, yes.
$endgroup$
– Fede Poncio
Jan 18 at 17:29




$begingroup$
I believe this is the statement of Dini’s Theorem. In that case, yes.
$endgroup$
– Fede Poncio
Jan 18 at 17:29




1




1




$begingroup$
@FedePoncio I believe Dini's Theorem has a monotonicity assumption
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 18 at 17:30




$begingroup$
@FedePoncio I believe Dini's Theorem has a monotonicity assumption
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 18 at 17:30












$begingroup$
Actually, Dini requires $f_n$ to be either increasing or decreasing. Without that condition I don’t think it holds
$endgroup$
– Fede Poncio
Jan 18 at 17:30




$begingroup$
Actually, Dini requires $f_n$ to be either increasing or decreasing. Without that condition I don’t think it holds
$endgroup$
– Fede Poncio
Jan 18 at 17:30












$begingroup$
@angryavian Yes, thank you
$endgroup$
– Fede Poncio
Jan 18 at 17:30




$begingroup$
@angryavian Yes, thank you
$endgroup$
– Fede Poncio
Jan 18 at 17:30




1




1




$begingroup$
Lokk here for various counterexamples showing all hypotheses of Dini's theorem are necessary.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 18 at 17:44




$begingroup$
Lokk here for various counterexamples showing all hypotheses of Dini's theorem are necessary.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 18 at 17:44










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

No, if there is no condition that $f_n$ are continuous. Counterexample: $K = [0,1]$, $f_n(x)$ $=$ $0$ for $xneq1/n$, $1$ for $x = 1/n$, $f(x) equiv 0$.



EDIT: For continuous functions it is still not true. $K$ and $f$ as above, and $f_n(x) = 0$ for x < $1/2n$, $0$ for $x > 3/2n$, $1$ for $1/n$ and linear on intervals $[1/2n,1/n]$ and $[1/n,3/2n]$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Oh.. sorry. I missed to mention that $f_n$'s are continuous.
    $endgroup$
    – Vinay Sipani
    Jan 18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. That example works.
    $endgroup$
    – Vinay Sipani
    Jan 18 at 17:42



















1












$begingroup$

Let $X = [0, 2]$ and $$f_n(x) =begin{cases}
n^2x^2 − 2nx, 0 leq x leq 2/n\
0,&2/nlt x leq 2\
end{cases}$$



Clearly $f_n $ is continuous and converges pointwise to $0$, but the convergence is not uniform.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    No, if there is no condition that $f_n$ are continuous. Counterexample: $K = [0,1]$, $f_n(x)$ $=$ $0$ for $xneq1/n$, $1$ for $x = 1/n$, $f(x) equiv 0$.



    EDIT: For continuous functions it is still not true. $K$ and $f$ as above, and $f_n(x) = 0$ for x < $1/2n$, $0$ for $x > 3/2n$, $1$ for $1/n$ and linear on intervals $[1/2n,1/n]$ and $[1/n,3/2n]$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Oh.. sorry. I missed to mention that $f_n$'s are continuous.
      $endgroup$
      – Vinay Sipani
      Jan 18 at 17:33










    • $begingroup$
      Thank you. That example works.
      $endgroup$
      – Vinay Sipani
      Jan 18 at 17:42
















    1












    $begingroup$

    No, if there is no condition that $f_n$ are continuous. Counterexample: $K = [0,1]$, $f_n(x)$ $=$ $0$ for $xneq1/n$, $1$ for $x = 1/n$, $f(x) equiv 0$.



    EDIT: For continuous functions it is still not true. $K$ and $f$ as above, and $f_n(x) = 0$ for x < $1/2n$, $0$ for $x > 3/2n$, $1$ for $1/n$ and linear on intervals $[1/2n,1/n]$ and $[1/n,3/2n]$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Oh.. sorry. I missed to mention that $f_n$'s are continuous.
      $endgroup$
      – Vinay Sipani
      Jan 18 at 17:33










    • $begingroup$
      Thank you. That example works.
      $endgroup$
      – Vinay Sipani
      Jan 18 at 17:42














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    No, if there is no condition that $f_n$ are continuous. Counterexample: $K = [0,1]$, $f_n(x)$ $=$ $0$ for $xneq1/n$, $1$ for $x = 1/n$, $f(x) equiv 0$.



    EDIT: For continuous functions it is still not true. $K$ and $f$ as above, and $f_n(x) = 0$ for x < $1/2n$, $0$ for $x > 3/2n$, $1$ for $1/n$ and linear on intervals $[1/2n,1/n]$ and $[1/n,3/2n]$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    No, if there is no condition that $f_n$ are continuous. Counterexample: $K = [0,1]$, $f_n(x)$ $=$ $0$ for $xneq1/n$, $1$ for $x = 1/n$, $f(x) equiv 0$.



    EDIT: For continuous functions it is still not true. $K$ and $f$ as above, and $f_n(x) = 0$ for x < $1/2n$, $0$ for $x > 3/2n$, $1$ for $1/n$ and linear on intervals $[1/2n,1/n]$ and $[1/n,3/2n]$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 18 at 17:35

























    answered Jan 18 at 17:31









    Jakub AndruszkiewiczJakub Andruszkiewicz

    2116




    2116












    • $begingroup$
      Oh.. sorry. I missed to mention that $f_n$'s are continuous.
      $endgroup$
      – Vinay Sipani
      Jan 18 at 17:33










    • $begingroup$
      Thank you. That example works.
      $endgroup$
      – Vinay Sipani
      Jan 18 at 17:42


















    • $begingroup$
      Oh.. sorry. I missed to mention that $f_n$'s are continuous.
      $endgroup$
      – Vinay Sipani
      Jan 18 at 17:33










    • $begingroup$
      Thank you. That example works.
      $endgroup$
      – Vinay Sipani
      Jan 18 at 17:42
















    $begingroup$
    Oh.. sorry. I missed to mention that $f_n$'s are continuous.
    $endgroup$
    – Vinay Sipani
    Jan 18 at 17:33




    $begingroup$
    Oh.. sorry. I missed to mention that $f_n$'s are continuous.
    $endgroup$
    – Vinay Sipani
    Jan 18 at 17:33












    $begingroup$
    Thank you. That example works.
    $endgroup$
    – Vinay Sipani
    Jan 18 at 17:42




    $begingroup$
    Thank you. That example works.
    $endgroup$
    – Vinay Sipani
    Jan 18 at 17:42











    1












    $begingroup$

    Let $X = [0, 2]$ and $$f_n(x) =begin{cases}
    n^2x^2 − 2nx, 0 leq x leq 2/n\
    0,&2/nlt x leq 2\
    end{cases}$$



    Clearly $f_n $ is continuous and converges pointwise to $0$, but the convergence is not uniform.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Let $X = [0, 2]$ and $$f_n(x) =begin{cases}
      n^2x^2 − 2nx, 0 leq x leq 2/n\
      0,&2/nlt x leq 2\
      end{cases}$$



      Clearly $f_n $ is continuous and converges pointwise to $0$, but the convergence is not uniform.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Let $X = [0, 2]$ and $$f_n(x) =begin{cases}
        n^2x^2 − 2nx, 0 leq x leq 2/n\
        0,&2/nlt x leq 2\
        end{cases}$$



        Clearly $f_n $ is continuous and converges pointwise to $0$, but the convergence is not uniform.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Let $X = [0, 2]$ and $$f_n(x) =begin{cases}
        n^2x^2 − 2nx, 0 leq x leq 2/n\
        0,&2/nlt x leq 2\
        end{cases}$$



        Clearly $f_n $ is continuous and converges pointwise to $0$, but the convergence is not uniform.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 18 at 17:43









        Thomas ShelbyThomas Shelby

        3,7092525




        3,7092525















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