On topological space whose homology groups/modules are trivial












1












$begingroup$


Let $X$ be a simply connected topological space. Consider the following three statements :



(1) $X$ is contractible.



(2) For every commutative ring $R$, $H_0(X,R)=R$ and $H_n(X,R)=0, forall n ge 1$



(3) $H_0(X,mathbb Z)=mathbb Z$ and $H_n(X,mathbb Z)=0,forall n ge 1$



Now we know that $(1) implies (2) implies (3)$.



My question is: Is any of these implications reversible ?










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $X$ be a simply connected topological space. Consider the following three statements :



    (1) $X$ is contractible.



    (2) For every commutative ring $R$, $H_0(X,R)=R$ and $H_n(X,R)=0, forall n ge 1$



    (3) $H_0(X,mathbb Z)=mathbb Z$ and $H_n(X,mathbb Z)=0,forall n ge 1$



    Now we know that $(1) implies (2) implies (3)$.



    My question is: Is any of these implications reversible ?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $X$ be a simply connected topological space. Consider the following three statements :



      (1) $X$ is contractible.



      (2) For every commutative ring $R$, $H_0(X,R)=R$ and $H_n(X,R)=0, forall n ge 1$



      (3) $H_0(X,mathbb Z)=mathbb Z$ and $H_n(X,mathbb Z)=0,forall n ge 1$



      Now we know that $(1) implies (2) implies (3)$.



      My question is: Is any of these implications reversible ?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $X$ be a simply connected topological space. Consider the following three statements :



      (1) $X$ is contractible.



      (2) For every commutative ring $R$, $H_0(X,R)=R$ and $H_n(X,R)=0, forall n ge 1$



      (3) $H_0(X,mathbb Z)=mathbb Z$ and $H_n(X,mathbb Z)=0,forall n ge 1$



      Now we know that $(1) implies (2) implies (3)$.



      My question is: Is any of these implications reversible ?







      algebraic-topology homology-cohomology homotopy-theory






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      asked Jan 10 at 7:21









      user521337user521337

      1,1451416




      1,1451416






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          By the Hurewicz theorem, (3) (together with simple connectedness) implies all homotopy groups of $X$ are trivial (if some homotopy group is nontrivial, the least nontrivial homotopy group would give a nontrivial homology group). If $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex, then $X$ is contractible by Whitehead's theorem. So both implications are reversible if $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex.



          For arbitrary simply connected spaces, the second implication is reversible but not the first. Indeed, (3) implies (2) immediately by the universal coefficient theorem. Some examples of simply connected spaces that satisfy (3) (and thus (2)) but are not contractible are the (open) long line and the Warsaw circle.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            just out of curiosity ; do you have a metrizable counterexample ?
            $endgroup$
            – user521337
            Jan 10 at 8:13










          • $begingroup$
            The Warsaw circle is metrizable; it's a subspace of $mathbb{R}^2$.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Jan 10 at 16:07



















          0












          $begingroup$

          (3) implies (2) by the
          Universal Coefficient Theorem.



          I'm pretty sure that (2) does not imply (1); that would make topology too easy....






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            2 Answers
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            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            By the Hurewicz theorem, (3) (together with simple connectedness) implies all homotopy groups of $X$ are trivial (if some homotopy group is nontrivial, the least nontrivial homotopy group would give a nontrivial homology group). If $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex, then $X$ is contractible by Whitehead's theorem. So both implications are reversible if $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex.



            For arbitrary simply connected spaces, the second implication is reversible but not the first. Indeed, (3) implies (2) immediately by the universal coefficient theorem. Some examples of simply connected spaces that satisfy (3) (and thus (2)) but are not contractible are the (open) long line and the Warsaw circle.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              just out of curiosity ; do you have a metrizable counterexample ?
              $endgroup$
              – user521337
              Jan 10 at 8:13










            • $begingroup$
              The Warsaw circle is metrizable; it's a subspace of $mathbb{R}^2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Jan 10 at 16:07
















            2












            $begingroup$

            By the Hurewicz theorem, (3) (together with simple connectedness) implies all homotopy groups of $X$ are trivial (if some homotopy group is nontrivial, the least nontrivial homotopy group would give a nontrivial homology group). If $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex, then $X$ is contractible by Whitehead's theorem. So both implications are reversible if $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex.



            For arbitrary simply connected spaces, the second implication is reversible but not the first. Indeed, (3) implies (2) immediately by the universal coefficient theorem. Some examples of simply connected spaces that satisfy (3) (and thus (2)) but are not contractible are the (open) long line and the Warsaw circle.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              just out of curiosity ; do you have a metrizable counterexample ?
              $endgroup$
              – user521337
              Jan 10 at 8:13










            • $begingroup$
              The Warsaw circle is metrizable; it's a subspace of $mathbb{R}^2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Jan 10 at 16:07














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            By the Hurewicz theorem, (3) (together with simple connectedness) implies all homotopy groups of $X$ are trivial (if some homotopy group is nontrivial, the least nontrivial homotopy group would give a nontrivial homology group). If $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex, then $X$ is contractible by Whitehead's theorem. So both implications are reversible if $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex.



            For arbitrary simply connected spaces, the second implication is reversible but not the first. Indeed, (3) implies (2) immediately by the universal coefficient theorem. Some examples of simply connected spaces that satisfy (3) (and thus (2)) but are not contractible are the (open) long line and the Warsaw circle.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            By the Hurewicz theorem, (3) (together with simple connectedness) implies all homotopy groups of $X$ are trivial (if some homotopy group is nontrivial, the least nontrivial homotopy group would give a nontrivial homology group). If $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex, then $X$ is contractible by Whitehead's theorem. So both implications are reversible if $X$ has the homotopy type of a CW-complex.



            For arbitrary simply connected spaces, the second implication is reversible but not the first. Indeed, (3) implies (2) immediately by the universal coefficient theorem. Some examples of simply connected spaces that satisfy (3) (and thus (2)) but are not contractible are the (open) long line and the Warsaw circle.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 10 at 7:44

























            answered Jan 10 at 7:30









            Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

            185k13213339




            185k13213339












            • $begingroup$
              just out of curiosity ; do you have a metrizable counterexample ?
              $endgroup$
              – user521337
              Jan 10 at 8:13










            • $begingroup$
              The Warsaw circle is metrizable; it's a subspace of $mathbb{R}^2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Jan 10 at 16:07


















            • $begingroup$
              just out of curiosity ; do you have a metrizable counterexample ?
              $endgroup$
              – user521337
              Jan 10 at 8:13










            • $begingroup$
              The Warsaw circle is metrizable; it's a subspace of $mathbb{R}^2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Jan 10 at 16:07
















            $begingroup$
            just out of curiosity ; do you have a metrizable counterexample ?
            $endgroup$
            – user521337
            Jan 10 at 8:13




            $begingroup$
            just out of curiosity ; do you have a metrizable counterexample ?
            $endgroup$
            – user521337
            Jan 10 at 8:13












            $begingroup$
            The Warsaw circle is metrizable; it's a subspace of $mathbb{R}^2$.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Jan 10 at 16:07




            $begingroup$
            The Warsaw circle is metrizable; it's a subspace of $mathbb{R}^2$.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Jan 10 at 16:07











            0












            $begingroup$

            (3) implies (2) by the
            Universal Coefficient Theorem.



            I'm pretty sure that (2) does not imply (1); that would make topology too easy....






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              (3) implies (2) by the
              Universal Coefficient Theorem.



              I'm pretty sure that (2) does not imply (1); that would make topology too easy....






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                (3) implies (2) by the
                Universal Coefficient Theorem.



                I'm pretty sure that (2) does not imply (1); that would make topology too easy....






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                (3) implies (2) by the
                Universal Coefficient Theorem.



                I'm pretty sure that (2) does not imply (1); that would make topology too easy....







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 10 at 7:28









                Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

                103k1160132




                103k1160132






























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