There doesn't exists an epimorphism from $(mathbb{R}, +)$ to $(mathbb{Q}, +)$ proof verification. [duplicate]












2












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Does there exist a surjective homomorphism from $(mathbb R,+)$ to $(mathbb Q,+)$ ?

    2 answers




Suppose that such epimorphism exists, and call it $f$.



For fixed $xinmathbb{R}$, take $N = text{Ker}(f)$ and $S = xmathbb{Q}$.



Apply the second theorem of isomorphisms, that is:
$$(SN)/Ncong S/(Scap N) $$
But $(SN)/N = {text{Ker}(f)}$, so that $S/(Scap N) = { x+Scap N: xin S} = { Scap N }$, hence $S = Scap N$. This means that $Ssubset N$, from which follows that $$mathbb{R} = text{Ker}(f)$$So that $f(x) = 0$ for all $xin mathbb{R}$, hence $f$ is not an epimorphism, and contradiction proofs that such epimorphism cannot exists.



Is this proof correct? Did I miss anything? Can it be done easier? Thank you.



Edit: Sorry, I see now that this proof isn't correct. Clearly, $NS$ doesn't have to equal $N$, which I thought is true because of additive and multiplicative notation confusion.










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marked as duplicate by Jakobian, Community Jan 18 at 20:15


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    You seem to be mixing multiplicative and additive notation. Both groups in the headers are additive abelian groups, thus...what is $;S=xBbb Q;$ ? Is it really all the rational products of $;x;$ ? But then why $;SN;$ and not $;S+N;$ ? All this is confusing...
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 18 at 17:54










  • $begingroup$
    @DonAntonio: note that ${qxmid qinmathbb{Q}}$ is an additive subgroup of $mathbb{R}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 18 at 18:05










  • $begingroup$
    @Jakobian: I cannot figure out why you conclude that $(SN)/N$ is a single element. That holds if and only if $xin N$, which is your desired conclusion, so it looks to me as if you are assuming what you are trying to prove. How do you justify that $(SN)/N$ consists only of $N$?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 18 at 18:06










  • $begingroup$
    It's all because I've mixed up additive and multiplicative notation. Sorry for that, I was sligthly confused myself.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:39










  • $begingroup$
    @ArturoMagidin I know that, yet the the notation $;SN;$ seems off for additively written groups. That's why I asked.
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 18 at 22:14
















2












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Does there exist a surjective homomorphism from $(mathbb R,+)$ to $(mathbb Q,+)$ ?

    2 answers




Suppose that such epimorphism exists, and call it $f$.



For fixed $xinmathbb{R}$, take $N = text{Ker}(f)$ and $S = xmathbb{Q}$.



Apply the second theorem of isomorphisms, that is:
$$(SN)/Ncong S/(Scap N) $$
But $(SN)/N = {text{Ker}(f)}$, so that $S/(Scap N) = { x+Scap N: xin S} = { Scap N }$, hence $S = Scap N$. This means that $Ssubset N$, from which follows that $$mathbb{R} = text{Ker}(f)$$So that $f(x) = 0$ for all $xin mathbb{R}$, hence $f$ is not an epimorphism, and contradiction proofs that such epimorphism cannot exists.



Is this proof correct? Did I miss anything? Can it be done easier? Thank you.



Edit: Sorry, I see now that this proof isn't correct. Clearly, $NS$ doesn't have to equal $N$, which I thought is true because of additive and multiplicative notation confusion.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Jakobian, Community Jan 18 at 20:15


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    You seem to be mixing multiplicative and additive notation. Both groups in the headers are additive abelian groups, thus...what is $;S=xBbb Q;$ ? Is it really all the rational products of $;x;$ ? But then why $;SN;$ and not $;S+N;$ ? All this is confusing...
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 18 at 17:54










  • $begingroup$
    @DonAntonio: note that ${qxmid qinmathbb{Q}}$ is an additive subgroup of $mathbb{R}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 18 at 18:05










  • $begingroup$
    @Jakobian: I cannot figure out why you conclude that $(SN)/N$ is a single element. That holds if and only if $xin N$, which is your desired conclusion, so it looks to me as if you are assuming what you are trying to prove. How do you justify that $(SN)/N$ consists only of $N$?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 18 at 18:06










  • $begingroup$
    It's all because I've mixed up additive and multiplicative notation. Sorry for that, I was sligthly confused myself.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:39










  • $begingroup$
    @ArturoMagidin I know that, yet the the notation $;SN;$ seems off for additively written groups. That's why I asked.
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 18 at 22:14














2












2








2





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Does there exist a surjective homomorphism from $(mathbb R,+)$ to $(mathbb Q,+)$ ?

    2 answers




Suppose that such epimorphism exists, and call it $f$.



For fixed $xinmathbb{R}$, take $N = text{Ker}(f)$ and $S = xmathbb{Q}$.



Apply the second theorem of isomorphisms, that is:
$$(SN)/Ncong S/(Scap N) $$
But $(SN)/N = {text{Ker}(f)}$, so that $S/(Scap N) = { x+Scap N: xin S} = { Scap N }$, hence $S = Scap N$. This means that $Ssubset N$, from which follows that $$mathbb{R} = text{Ker}(f)$$So that $f(x) = 0$ for all $xin mathbb{R}$, hence $f$ is not an epimorphism, and contradiction proofs that such epimorphism cannot exists.



Is this proof correct? Did I miss anything? Can it be done easier? Thank you.



Edit: Sorry, I see now that this proof isn't correct. Clearly, $NS$ doesn't have to equal $N$, which I thought is true because of additive and multiplicative notation confusion.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Does there exist a surjective homomorphism from $(mathbb R,+)$ to $(mathbb Q,+)$ ?

    2 answers




Suppose that such epimorphism exists, and call it $f$.



For fixed $xinmathbb{R}$, take $N = text{Ker}(f)$ and $S = xmathbb{Q}$.



Apply the second theorem of isomorphisms, that is:
$$(SN)/Ncong S/(Scap N) $$
But $(SN)/N = {text{Ker}(f)}$, so that $S/(Scap N) = { x+Scap N: xin S} = { Scap N }$, hence $S = Scap N$. This means that $Ssubset N$, from which follows that $$mathbb{R} = text{Ker}(f)$$So that $f(x) = 0$ for all $xin mathbb{R}$, hence $f$ is not an epimorphism, and contradiction proofs that such epimorphism cannot exists.



Is this proof correct? Did I miss anything? Can it be done easier? Thank you.



Edit: Sorry, I see now that this proof isn't correct. Clearly, $NS$ doesn't have to equal $N$, which I thought is true because of additive and multiplicative notation confusion.





This question already has an answer here:




  • Does there exist a surjective homomorphism from $(mathbb R,+)$ to $(mathbb Q,+)$ ?

    2 answers








group-theory proof-verification






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 18 at 17:50







Jakobian

















asked Jan 18 at 17:40









JakobianJakobian

2,650721




2,650721




marked as duplicate by Jakobian, Community Jan 18 at 20:15


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Jakobian, Community Jan 18 at 20:15


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    You seem to be mixing multiplicative and additive notation. Both groups in the headers are additive abelian groups, thus...what is $;S=xBbb Q;$ ? Is it really all the rational products of $;x;$ ? But then why $;SN;$ and not $;S+N;$ ? All this is confusing...
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 18 at 17:54










  • $begingroup$
    @DonAntonio: note that ${qxmid qinmathbb{Q}}$ is an additive subgroup of $mathbb{R}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 18 at 18:05










  • $begingroup$
    @Jakobian: I cannot figure out why you conclude that $(SN)/N$ is a single element. That holds if and only if $xin N$, which is your desired conclusion, so it looks to me as if you are assuming what you are trying to prove. How do you justify that $(SN)/N$ consists only of $N$?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 18 at 18:06










  • $begingroup$
    It's all because I've mixed up additive and multiplicative notation. Sorry for that, I was sligthly confused myself.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:39










  • $begingroup$
    @ArturoMagidin I know that, yet the the notation $;SN;$ seems off for additively written groups. That's why I asked.
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 18 at 22:14


















  • $begingroup$
    You seem to be mixing multiplicative and additive notation. Both groups in the headers are additive abelian groups, thus...what is $;S=xBbb Q;$ ? Is it really all the rational products of $;x;$ ? But then why $;SN;$ and not $;S+N;$ ? All this is confusing...
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 18 at 17:54










  • $begingroup$
    @DonAntonio: note that ${qxmid qinmathbb{Q}}$ is an additive subgroup of $mathbb{R}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 18 at 18:05










  • $begingroup$
    @Jakobian: I cannot figure out why you conclude that $(SN)/N$ is a single element. That holds if and only if $xin N$, which is your desired conclusion, so it looks to me as if you are assuming what you are trying to prove. How do you justify that $(SN)/N$ consists only of $N$?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 18 at 18:06










  • $begingroup$
    It's all because I've mixed up additive and multiplicative notation. Sorry for that, I was sligthly confused myself.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:39










  • $begingroup$
    @ArturoMagidin I know that, yet the the notation $;SN;$ seems off for additively written groups. That's why I asked.
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 18 at 22:14
















$begingroup$
You seem to be mixing multiplicative and additive notation. Both groups in the headers are additive abelian groups, thus...what is $;S=xBbb Q;$ ? Is it really all the rational products of $;x;$ ? But then why $;SN;$ and not $;S+N;$ ? All this is confusing...
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Jan 18 at 17:54




$begingroup$
You seem to be mixing multiplicative and additive notation. Both groups in the headers are additive abelian groups, thus...what is $;S=xBbb Q;$ ? Is it really all the rational products of $;x;$ ? But then why $;SN;$ and not $;S+N;$ ? All this is confusing...
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Jan 18 at 17:54












$begingroup$
@DonAntonio: note that ${qxmid qinmathbb{Q}}$ is an additive subgroup of $mathbb{R}$.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 18 at 18:05




$begingroup$
@DonAntonio: note that ${qxmid qinmathbb{Q}}$ is an additive subgroup of $mathbb{R}$.
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 18 at 18:05












$begingroup$
@Jakobian: I cannot figure out why you conclude that $(SN)/N$ is a single element. That holds if and only if $xin N$, which is your desired conclusion, so it looks to me as if you are assuming what you are trying to prove. How do you justify that $(SN)/N$ consists only of $N$?
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 18 at 18:06




$begingroup$
@Jakobian: I cannot figure out why you conclude that $(SN)/N$ is a single element. That holds if and only if $xin N$, which is your desired conclusion, so it looks to me as if you are assuming what you are trying to prove. How do you justify that $(SN)/N$ consists only of $N$?
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 18 at 18:06












$begingroup$
It's all because I've mixed up additive and multiplicative notation. Sorry for that, I was sligthly confused myself.
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Jan 18 at 18:39




$begingroup$
It's all because I've mixed up additive and multiplicative notation. Sorry for that, I was sligthly confused myself.
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Jan 18 at 18:39












$begingroup$
@ArturoMagidin I know that, yet the the notation $;SN;$ seems off for additively written groups. That's why I asked.
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Jan 18 at 22:14




$begingroup$
@ArturoMagidin I know that, yet the the notation $;SN;$ seems off for additively written groups. That's why I asked.
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Jan 18 at 22:14










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

There is an epi $(mathbb R,+) rightarrow (mathbb Q ,+)$. See this question, especially the answer by N.S.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I was convinced it doesn't exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    No problem. So was I when I at first glance :)
    $endgroup$
    – o.h.
    Jan 18 at 18:51


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

There is an epi $(mathbb R,+) rightarrow (mathbb Q ,+)$. See this question, especially the answer by N.S.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I was convinced it doesn't exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    No problem. So was I when I at first glance :)
    $endgroup$
    – o.h.
    Jan 18 at 18:51
















1












$begingroup$

There is an epi $(mathbb R,+) rightarrow (mathbb Q ,+)$. See this question, especially the answer by N.S.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I was convinced it doesn't exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    No problem. So was I when I at first glance :)
    $endgroup$
    – o.h.
    Jan 18 at 18:51














1












1








1





$begingroup$

There is an epi $(mathbb R,+) rightarrow (mathbb Q ,+)$. See this question, especially the answer by N.S.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



There is an epi $(mathbb R,+) rightarrow (mathbb Q ,+)$. See this question, especially the answer by N.S.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 18 at 17:57









o.h.o.h.

4616




4616












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I was convinced it doesn't exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    No problem. So was I when I at first glance :)
    $endgroup$
    – o.h.
    Jan 18 at 18:51


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I was convinced it doesn't exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 18 at 18:40










  • $begingroup$
    No problem. So was I when I at first glance :)
    $endgroup$
    – o.h.
    Jan 18 at 18:51
















$begingroup$
Thank you. I was convinced it doesn't exists.
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Jan 18 at 18:40




$begingroup$
Thank you. I was convinced it doesn't exists.
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Jan 18 at 18:40












$begingroup$
No problem. So was I when I at first glance :)
$endgroup$
– o.h.
Jan 18 at 18:51




$begingroup$
No problem. So was I when I at first glance :)
$endgroup$
– o.h.
Jan 18 at 18:51



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