Convergent integral of divergent function












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On one of my calculus lectures I was told that there exist convergent improper integrals (in infinity) of divergent function. I was searching for an example in the internet, but I didn't find any. Has any of you idea how would this kind of function look like? Thanks in advance










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    1












    $begingroup$


    On one of my calculus lectures I was told that there exist convergent improper integrals (in infinity) of divergent function. I was searching for an example in the internet, but I didn't find any. Has any of you idea how would this kind of function look like? Thanks in advance










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      On one of my calculus lectures I was told that there exist convergent improper integrals (in infinity) of divergent function. I was searching for an example in the internet, but I didn't find any. Has any of you idea how would this kind of function look like? Thanks in advance










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      On one of my calculus lectures I was told that there exist convergent improper integrals (in infinity) of divergent function. I was searching for an example in the internet, but I didn't find any. Has any of you idea how would this kind of function look like? Thanks in advance







      calculus functions convergence improper-integrals






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      edited Jan 19 at 4:32









      BigM

      2,57411530




      2,57411530










      asked Mar 12 '14 at 21:26









      bartopbartop

      1135




      1135






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          For any positive integer $n$, let $f(x)=0$ at $x=n-frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let it climb linearly to $1$ at $x=n$, and then fall linearly to $0$ at $x=n+frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let $f(x)=0$ everywhere else.



          So $f$ has fast-narrowing "spikes" of height $1$ around every positive integer. The combined area of these spikes is small.



          We can modify the construction to make the maximum height of the spikes become arbitrarily large as $ntoinfty$, for example by replacing $f(n)=1$ by $f(n)=n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











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          • $begingroup$
            If I may ask, what would be integral of such a function?
            $endgroup$
            – bartop
            Mar 12 '14 at 22:16










          • $begingroup$
            For the first function I gave, the integral from $0$ to $infty$ is the sum of the areas of the triangles. The isosceles triangle centered on $n$ has area $frac{1}{2^n}$. Sum from $n=1$ to $infty$. This is a geometric series, sum $1$. So the definite integral is $1$. The second one I suggested (height $n$ at $n$) turns out to be also a doable sum, it is $2$.
            $endgroup$
            – André Nicolas
            Mar 12 '14 at 23:21



















          1












          $begingroup$

          How about $int_0^1ln(x)dx=-1$;)






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            2 Answers
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            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            active

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            3












            $begingroup$

            For any positive integer $n$, let $f(x)=0$ at $x=n-frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let it climb linearly to $1$ at $x=n$, and then fall linearly to $0$ at $x=n+frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let $f(x)=0$ everywhere else.



            So $f$ has fast-narrowing "spikes" of height $1$ around every positive integer. The combined area of these spikes is small.



            We can modify the construction to make the maximum height of the spikes become arbitrarily large as $ntoinfty$, for example by replacing $f(n)=1$ by $f(n)=n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              If I may ask, what would be integral of such a function?
              $endgroup$
              – bartop
              Mar 12 '14 at 22:16










            • $begingroup$
              For the first function I gave, the integral from $0$ to $infty$ is the sum of the areas of the triangles. The isosceles triangle centered on $n$ has area $frac{1}{2^n}$. Sum from $n=1$ to $infty$. This is a geometric series, sum $1$. So the definite integral is $1$. The second one I suggested (height $n$ at $n$) turns out to be also a doable sum, it is $2$.
              $endgroup$
              – André Nicolas
              Mar 12 '14 at 23:21
















            3












            $begingroup$

            For any positive integer $n$, let $f(x)=0$ at $x=n-frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let it climb linearly to $1$ at $x=n$, and then fall linearly to $0$ at $x=n+frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let $f(x)=0$ everywhere else.



            So $f$ has fast-narrowing "spikes" of height $1$ around every positive integer. The combined area of these spikes is small.



            We can modify the construction to make the maximum height of the spikes become arbitrarily large as $ntoinfty$, for example by replacing $f(n)=1$ by $f(n)=n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              If I may ask, what would be integral of such a function?
              $endgroup$
              – bartop
              Mar 12 '14 at 22:16










            • $begingroup$
              For the first function I gave, the integral from $0$ to $infty$ is the sum of the areas of the triangles. The isosceles triangle centered on $n$ has area $frac{1}{2^n}$. Sum from $n=1$ to $infty$. This is a geometric series, sum $1$. So the definite integral is $1$. The second one I suggested (height $n$ at $n$) turns out to be also a doable sum, it is $2$.
              $endgroup$
              – André Nicolas
              Mar 12 '14 at 23:21














            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            For any positive integer $n$, let $f(x)=0$ at $x=n-frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let it climb linearly to $1$ at $x=n$, and then fall linearly to $0$ at $x=n+frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let $f(x)=0$ everywhere else.



            So $f$ has fast-narrowing "spikes" of height $1$ around every positive integer. The combined area of these spikes is small.



            We can modify the construction to make the maximum height of the spikes become arbitrarily large as $ntoinfty$, for example by replacing $f(n)=1$ by $f(n)=n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            For any positive integer $n$, let $f(x)=0$ at $x=n-frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let it climb linearly to $1$ at $x=n$, and then fall linearly to $0$ at $x=n+frac{1}{2^{n}}$. Let $f(x)=0$ everywhere else.



            So $f$ has fast-narrowing "spikes" of height $1$ around every positive integer. The combined area of these spikes is small.



            We can modify the construction to make the maximum height of the spikes become arbitrarily large as $ntoinfty$, for example by replacing $f(n)=1$ by $f(n)=n$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            answered Mar 12 '14 at 21:38


























            community wiki





            André Nicolas













            • $begingroup$
              If I may ask, what would be integral of such a function?
              $endgroup$
              – bartop
              Mar 12 '14 at 22:16










            • $begingroup$
              For the first function I gave, the integral from $0$ to $infty$ is the sum of the areas of the triangles. The isosceles triangle centered on $n$ has area $frac{1}{2^n}$. Sum from $n=1$ to $infty$. This is a geometric series, sum $1$. So the definite integral is $1$. The second one I suggested (height $n$ at $n$) turns out to be also a doable sum, it is $2$.
              $endgroup$
              – André Nicolas
              Mar 12 '14 at 23:21


















            • $begingroup$
              If I may ask, what would be integral of such a function?
              $endgroup$
              – bartop
              Mar 12 '14 at 22:16










            • $begingroup$
              For the first function I gave, the integral from $0$ to $infty$ is the sum of the areas of the triangles. The isosceles triangle centered on $n$ has area $frac{1}{2^n}$. Sum from $n=1$ to $infty$. This is a geometric series, sum $1$. So the definite integral is $1$. The second one I suggested (height $n$ at $n$) turns out to be also a doable sum, it is $2$.
              $endgroup$
              – André Nicolas
              Mar 12 '14 at 23:21
















            $begingroup$
            If I may ask, what would be integral of such a function?
            $endgroup$
            – bartop
            Mar 12 '14 at 22:16




            $begingroup$
            If I may ask, what would be integral of such a function?
            $endgroup$
            – bartop
            Mar 12 '14 at 22:16












            $begingroup$
            For the first function I gave, the integral from $0$ to $infty$ is the sum of the areas of the triangles. The isosceles triangle centered on $n$ has area $frac{1}{2^n}$. Sum from $n=1$ to $infty$. This is a geometric series, sum $1$. So the definite integral is $1$. The second one I suggested (height $n$ at $n$) turns out to be also a doable sum, it is $2$.
            $endgroup$
            – André Nicolas
            Mar 12 '14 at 23:21




            $begingroup$
            For the first function I gave, the integral from $0$ to $infty$ is the sum of the areas of the triangles. The isosceles triangle centered on $n$ has area $frac{1}{2^n}$. Sum from $n=1$ to $infty$. This is a geometric series, sum $1$. So the definite integral is $1$. The second one I suggested (height $n$ at $n$) turns out to be also a doable sum, it is $2$.
            $endgroup$
            – André Nicolas
            Mar 12 '14 at 23:21











            1












            $begingroup$

            How about $int_0^1ln(x)dx=-1$;)






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              How about $int_0^1ln(x)dx=-1$;)






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                How about $int_0^1ln(x)dx=-1$;)






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                How about $int_0^1ln(x)dx=-1$;)







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 12 '14 at 21:42









                BigMBigM

                2,57411530




                2,57411530






























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