Forex rate: Expected value paradox












0












$begingroup$


Let us suppose at present



1 dollar = 1 euro



After 1 year



There is 50% chance that 1 dollar = .80 euro ...[1]



And there is 50 % chance that 1 dollar = 1.25 euro ...[2]



Therefore expected value of 1 dollar after 1 year = .5*.8+.5*1.25 = 1.025 euro ...[a]



But statement 1 and 2 can be written as



There is 50% chance that 1 euro = 1.25 dollar ...[3]



And there is 50 % chance that 1 euro = .8 dollar ...[4]



Therefore expected value of 1 euro after 1 year = .5*.8+.5*1.25 = 1.025 dollar ...[b]



But statement [a] and [b] cannot be both right.



What is wrong here?



I don't know if this fits here? But this riddle was posed in this stat lecture https://youtu.be/UZjlBQbV1KU?list=PL2SOU6wwxB0uwwH80KTQ6ht66KWxbzTIo










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This is closely related to the two envelopes paradox: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two_envelopes_problem
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Montgomery
    Jan 23 at 15:52










  • $begingroup$
    This is known as Siegel's Paradox .
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 23 at 16:49












  • $begingroup$
    @lulu Sir, so if I understand correctly. In this case since expected value of both is same in terms of percentage change. The advisable strategy is to not buy the other currency(dollar or euro) and hold what you have?
    $endgroup$
    – q126y
    Jan 24 at 7:11










  • $begingroup$
    It's more subtle. My understanding (a bit stale) is that Siegel profits which are attributable to stochastic inflation are illusions (you get more dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth less, and fewer dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth more). However, if Siegel profits are attributable to actual changes in relative purchasing power then they are real. Here is a more detailed article on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 24 at 10:58


















0












$begingroup$


Let us suppose at present



1 dollar = 1 euro



After 1 year



There is 50% chance that 1 dollar = .80 euro ...[1]



And there is 50 % chance that 1 dollar = 1.25 euro ...[2]



Therefore expected value of 1 dollar after 1 year = .5*.8+.5*1.25 = 1.025 euro ...[a]



But statement 1 and 2 can be written as



There is 50% chance that 1 euro = 1.25 dollar ...[3]



And there is 50 % chance that 1 euro = .8 dollar ...[4]



Therefore expected value of 1 euro after 1 year = .5*.8+.5*1.25 = 1.025 dollar ...[b]



But statement [a] and [b] cannot be both right.



What is wrong here?



I don't know if this fits here? But this riddle was posed in this stat lecture https://youtu.be/UZjlBQbV1KU?list=PL2SOU6wwxB0uwwH80KTQ6ht66KWxbzTIo










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This is closely related to the two envelopes paradox: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two_envelopes_problem
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Montgomery
    Jan 23 at 15:52










  • $begingroup$
    This is known as Siegel's Paradox .
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 23 at 16:49












  • $begingroup$
    @lulu Sir, so if I understand correctly. In this case since expected value of both is same in terms of percentage change. The advisable strategy is to not buy the other currency(dollar or euro) and hold what you have?
    $endgroup$
    – q126y
    Jan 24 at 7:11










  • $begingroup$
    It's more subtle. My understanding (a bit stale) is that Siegel profits which are attributable to stochastic inflation are illusions (you get more dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth less, and fewer dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth more). However, if Siegel profits are attributable to actual changes in relative purchasing power then they are real. Here is a more detailed article on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 24 at 10:58
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let us suppose at present



1 dollar = 1 euro



After 1 year



There is 50% chance that 1 dollar = .80 euro ...[1]



And there is 50 % chance that 1 dollar = 1.25 euro ...[2]



Therefore expected value of 1 dollar after 1 year = .5*.8+.5*1.25 = 1.025 euro ...[a]



But statement 1 and 2 can be written as



There is 50% chance that 1 euro = 1.25 dollar ...[3]



And there is 50 % chance that 1 euro = .8 dollar ...[4]



Therefore expected value of 1 euro after 1 year = .5*.8+.5*1.25 = 1.025 dollar ...[b]



But statement [a] and [b] cannot be both right.



What is wrong here?



I don't know if this fits here? But this riddle was posed in this stat lecture https://youtu.be/UZjlBQbV1KU?list=PL2SOU6wwxB0uwwH80KTQ6ht66KWxbzTIo










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let us suppose at present



1 dollar = 1 euro



After 1 year



There is 50% chance that 1 dollar = .80 euro ...[1]



And there is 50 % chance that 1 dollar = 1.25 euro ...[2]



Therefore expected value of 1 dollar after 1 year = .5*.8+.5*1.25 = 1.025 euro ...[a]



But statement 1 and 2 can be written as



There is 50% chance that 1 euro = 1.25 dollar ...[3]



And there is 50 % chance that 1 euro = .8 dollar ...[4]



Therefore expected value of 1 euro after 1 year = .5*.8+.5*1.25 = 1.025 dollar ...[b]



But statement [a] and [b] cannot be both right.



What is wrong here?



I don't know if this fits here? But this riddle was posed in this stat lecture https://youtu.be/UZjlBQbV1KU?list=PL2SOU6wwxB0uwwH80KTQ6ht66KWxbzTIo







probability probability-theory statistics expected-value paradoxes






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 23 at 15:21









q126yq126y

239212




239212












  • $begingroup$
    This is closely related to the two envelopes paradox: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two_envelopes_problem
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Montgomery
    Jan 23 at 15:52










  • $begingroup$
    This is known as Siegel's Paradox .
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 23 at 16:49












  • $begingroup$
    @lulu Sir, so if I understand correctly. In this case since expected value of both is same in terms of percentage change. The advisable strategy is to not buy the other currency(dollar or euro) and hold what you have?
    $endgroup$
    – q126y
    Jan 24 at 7:11










  • $begingroup$
    It's more subtle. My understanding (a bit stale) is that Siegel profits which are attributable to stochastic inflation are illusions (you get more dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth less, and fewer dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth more). However, if Siegel profits are attributable to actual changes in relative purchasing power then they are real. Here is a more detailed article on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 24 at 10:58




















  • $begingroup$
    This is closely related to the two envelopes paradox: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two_envelopes_problem
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Montgomery
    Jan 23 at 15:52










  • $begingroup$
    This is known as Siegel's Paradox .
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 23 at 16:49












  • $begingroup$
    @lulu Sir, so if I understand correctly. In this case since expected value of both is same in terms of percentage change. The advisable strategy is to not buy the other currency(dollar or euro) and hold what you have?
    $endgroup$
    – q126y
    Jan 24 at 7:11










  • $begingroup$
    It's more subtle. My understanding (a bit stale) is that Siegel profits which are attributable to stochastic inflation are illusions (you get more dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth less, and fewer dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth more). However, if Siegel profits are attributable to actual changes in relative purchasing power then they are real. Here is a more detailed article on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Jan 24 at 10:58


















$begingroup$
This is closely related to the two envelopes paradox: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two_envelopes_problem
$endgroup$
– Aaron Montgomery
Jan 23 at 15:52




$begingroup$
This is closely related to the two envelopes paradox: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two_envelopes_problem
$endgroup$
– Aaron Montgomery
Jan 23 at 15:52












$begingroup$
This is known as Siegel's Paradox .
$endgroup$
– lulu
Jan 23 at 16:49






$begingroup$
This is known as Siegel's Paradox .
$endgroup$
– lulu
Jan 23 at 16:49














$begingroup$
@lulu Sir, so if I understand correctly. In this case since expected value of both is same in terms of percentage change. The advisable strategy is to not buy the other currency(dollar or euro) and hold what you have?
$endgroup$
– q126y
Jan 24 at 7:11




$begingroup$
@lulu Sir, so if I understand correctly. In this case since expected value of both is same in terms of percentage change. The advisable strategy is to not buy the other currency(dollar or euro) and hold what you have?
$endgroup$
– q126y
Jan 24 at 7:11












$begingroup$
It's more subtle. My understanding (a bit stale) is that Siegel profits which are attributable to stochastic inflation are illusions (you get more dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth less, and fewer dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth more). However, if Siegel profits are attributable to actual changes in relative purchasing power then they are real. Here is a more detailed article on the subject.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Jan 24 at 10:58






$begingroup$
It's more subtle. My understanding (a bit stale) is that Siegel profits which are attributable to stochastic inflation are illusions (you get more dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth less, and fewer dollars in worlds in which dollars are worth more). However, if Siegel profits are attributable to actual changes in relative purchasing power then they are real. Here is a more detailed article on the subject.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Jan 24 at 10:58












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