If a set can't contain identical elements, how can one element be less than or EQUAL to another element












0












$begingroup$


I'm studying set theory. I understand that a set can't contain identical elements. However when I read about partially ordered sets and the introduction of "$leq$" I get confused by some sentences like:



"Given elements $a,b$ in a set $L$ we impose the axiom:
If $aleq b$ and $bleq a$, then $a=b$."



How can $a=b$ if the set can't contain identical elements?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    "Can't contain identical elements" should be read as "Does not contain multiple copies of any elements"
    $endgroup$
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Jan 24 at 19:08










  • $begingroup$
    It's misleading to say that a set cannot contain identical elements. It's just that if an element is repeated, then the set is exactly the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 24 at 19:08






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Different variables can still represent the same element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Jan 24 at 19:11
















0












$begingroup$


I'm studying set theory. I understand that a set can't contain identical elements. However when I read about partially ordered sets and the introduction of "$leq$" I get confused by some sentences like:



"Given elements $a,b$ in a set $L$ we impose the axiom:
If $aleq b$ and $bleq a$, then $a=b$."



How can $a=b$ if the set can't contain identical elements?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    "Can't contain identical elements" should be read as "Does not contain multiple copies of any elements"
    $endgroup$
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Jan 24 at 19:08










  • $begingroup$
    It's misleading to say that a set cannot contain identical elements. It's just that if an element is repeated, then the set is exactly the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 24 at 19:08






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Different variables can still represent the same element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Jan 24 at 19:11














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I'm studying set theory. I understand that a set can't contain identical elements. However when I read about partially ordered sets and the introduction of "$leq$" I get confused by some sentences like:



"Given elements $a,b$ in a set $L$ we impose the axiom:
If $aleq b$ and $bleq a$, then $a=b$."



How can $a=b$ if the set can't contain identical elements?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm studying set theory. I understand that a set can't contain identical elements. However when I read about partially ordered sets and the introduction of "$leq$" I get confused by some sentences like:



"Given elements $a,b$ in a set $L$ we impose the axiom:
If $aleq b$ and $bleq a$, then $a=b$."



How can $a=b$ if the set can't contain identical elements?







elementary-set-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 24 at 19:12









Carl Mummert

67.5k7133251




67.5k7133251










asked Jan 24 at 19:06









HeuristicsHeuristics

536212




536212












  • $begingroup$
    "Can't contain identical elements" should be read as "Does not contain multiple copies of any elements"
    $endgroup$
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Jan 24 at 19:08










  • $begingroup$
    It's misleading to say that a set cannot contain identical elements. It's just that if an element is repeated, then the set is exactly the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 24 at 19:08






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Different variables can still represent the same element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Jan 24 at 19:11


















  • $begingroup$
    "Can't contain identical elements" should be read as "Does not contain multiple copies of any elements"
    $endgroup$
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Jan 24 at 19:08










  • $begingroup$
    It's misleading to say that a set cannot contain identical elements. It's just that if an element is repeated, then the set is exactly the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 24 at 19:08






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Different variables can still represent the same element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Jan 24 at 19:11
















$begingroup$
"Can't contain identical elements" should be read as "Does not contain multiple copies of any elements"
$endgroup$
– Morgan Rodgers
Jan 24 at 19:08




$begingroup$
"Can't contain identical elements" should be read as "Does not contain multiple copies of any elements"
$endgroup$
– Morgan Rodgers
Jan 24 at 19:08












$begingroup$
It's misleading to say that a set cannot contain identical elements. It's just that if an element is repeated, then the set is exactly the same.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Jan 24 at 19:08




$begingroup$
It's misleading to say that a set cannot contain identical elements. It's just that if an element is repeated, then the set is exactly the same.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Jan 24 at 19:08




4




4




$begingroup$
Different variables can still represent the same element of a set.
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Jan 24 at 19:11




$begingroup$
Different variables can still represent the same element of a set.
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Jan 24 at 19:11










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Here is an analogy. No two people are the same. If Person A has the same mother as Person B and they are not twins and where born on the same day then Person A and Person B are the same Person.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    "No two people people are the same" No, no two distinct people are the same. I am a person, and I am also a person. We are the same person. More generally, different variables need not refer to different elements; if $a,bin P$ then it might be the case that $a = b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 24 at 20:00










  • $begingroup$
    It is not a formal example so I think your comment raises more questions than it answers. Wouldn't the statement that no two distinct people are the same be redundant? If there were two seperate people who where identical in every way would they be considered distinct? Clearly trying to answer such questions would purely be a matter of definitions, of which there are none at hand for this example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jagol95
    Jan 24 at 20:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, the statement that no two distinct people are the same is tautologous. It amounts to the statement $forall x y,xne yto xne y$. But it is important to recognize the difference between this (trivially true) statement and the false statement $forall x y,xne y$. In English, we often insert an implicit distinctness condition on double quantifiers (i.e. "two people cannot be in the same place at the same time"), but mathematical english does not do this (when used carefully), and it is important to notice this.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 25 at 1:52













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

Here is an analogy. No two people are the same. If Person A has the same mother as Person B and they are not twins and where born on the same day then Person A and Person B are the same Person.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    "No two people people are the same" No, no two distinct people are the same. I am a person, and I am also a person. We are the same person. More generally, different variables need not refer to different elements; if $a,bin P$ then it might be the case that $a = b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 24 at 20:00










  • $begingroup$
    It is not a formal example so I think your comment raises more questions than it answers. Wouldn't the statement that no two distinct people are the same be redundant? If there were two seperate people who where identical in every way would they be considered distinct? Clearly trying to answer such questions would purely be a matter of definitions, of which there are none at hand for this example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jagol95
    Jan 24 at 20:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, the statement that no two distinct people are the same is tautologous. It amounts to the statement $forall x y,xne yto xne y$. But it is important to recognize the difference between this (trivially true) statement and the false statement $forall x y,xne y$. In English, we often insert an implicit distinctness condition on double quantifiers (i.e. "two people cannot be in the same place at the same time"), but mathematical english does not do this (when used carefully), and it is important to notice this.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 25 at 1:52


















0












$begingroup$

Here is an analogy. No two people are the same. If Person A has the same mother as Person B and they are not twins and where born on the same day then Person A and Person B are the same Person.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    "No two people people are the same" No, no two distinct people are the same. I am a person, and I am also a person. We are the same person. More generally, different variables need not refer to different elements; if $a,bin P$ then it might be the case that $a = b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 24 at 20:00










  • $begingroup$
    It is not a formal example so I think your comment raises more questions than it answers. Wouldn't the statement that no two distinct people are the same be redundant? If there were two seperate people who where identical in every way would they be considered distinct? Clearly trying to answer such questions would purely be a matter of definitions, of which there are none at hand for this example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jagol95
    Jan 24 at 20:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, the statement that no two distinct people are the same is tautologous. It amounts to the statement $forall x y,xne yto xne y$. But it is important to recognize the difference between this (trivially true) statement and the false statement $forall x y,xne y$. In English, we often insert an implicit distinctness condition on double quantifiers (i.e. "two people cannot be in the same place at the same time"), but mathematical english does not do this (when used carefully), and it is important to notice this.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 25 at 1:52
















0












0








0





$begingroup$

Here is an analogy. No two people are the same. If Person A has the same mother as Person B and they are not twins and where born on the same day then Person A and Person B are the same Person.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Here is an analogy. No two people are the same. If Person A has the same mother as Person B and they are not twins and where born on the same day then Person A and Person B are the same Person.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 24 at 19:21









Jagol95Jagol95

1637




1637












  • $begingroup$
    "No two people people are the same" No, no two distinct people are the same. I am a person, and I am also a person. We are the same person. More generally, different variables need not refer to different elements; if $a,bin P$ then it might be the case that $a = b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 24 at 20:00










  • $begingroup$
    It is not a formal example so I think your comment raises more questions than it answers. Wouldn't the statement that no two distinct people are the same be redundant? If there were two seperate people who where identical in every way would they be considered distinct? Clearly trying to answer such questions would purely be a matter of definitions, of which there are none at hand for this example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jagol95
    Jan 24 at 20:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, the statement that no two distinct people are the same is tautologous. It amounts to the statement $forall x y,xne yto xne y$. But it is important to recognize the difference between this (trivially true) statement and the false statement $forall x y,xne y$. In English, we often insert an implicit distinctness condition on double quantifiers (i.e. "two people cannot be in the same place at the same time"), but mathematical english does not do this (when used carefully), and it is important to notice this.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 25 at 1:52




















  • $begingroup$
    "No two people people are the same" No, no two distinct people are the same. I am a person, and I am also a person. We are the same person. More generally, different variables need not refer to different elements; if $a,bin P$ then it might be the case that $a = b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 24 at 20:00










  • $begingroup$
    It is not a formal example so I think your comment raises more questions than it answers. Wouldn't the statement that no two distinct people are the same be redundant? If there were two seperate people who where identical in every way would they be considered distinct? Clearly trying to answer such questions would purely be a matter of definitions, of which there are none at hand for this example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jagol95
    Jan 24 at 20:15










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, the statement that no two distinct people are the same is tautologous. It amounts to the statement $forall x y,xne yto xne y$. But it is important to recognize the difference between this (trivially true) statement and the false statement $forall x y,xne y$. In English, we often insert an implicit distinctness condition on double quantifiers (i.e. "two people cannot be in the same place at the same time"), but mathematical english does not do this (when used carefully), and it is important to notice this.
    $endgroup$
    – Mario Carneiro
    Jan 25 at 1:52


















$begingroup$
"No two people people are the same" No, no two distinct people are the same. I am a person, and I am also a person. We are the same person. More generally, different variables need not refer to different elements; if $a,bin P$ then it might be the case that $a = b$.
$endgroup$
– Mario Carneiro
Jan 24 at 20:00




$begingroup$
"No two people people are the same" No, no two distinct people are the same. I am a person, and I am also a person. We are the same person. More generally, different variables need not refer to different elements; if $a,bin P$ then it might be the case that $a = b$.
$endgroup$
– Mario Carneiro
Jan 24 at 20:00












$begingroup$
It is not a formal example so I think your comment raises more questions than it answers. Wouldn't the statement that no two distinct people are the same be redundant? If there were two seperate people who where identical in every way would they be considered distinct? Clearly trying to answer such questions would purely be a matter of definitions, of which there are none at hand for this example.
$endgroup$
– Jagol95
Jan 24 at 20:15




$begingroup$
It is not a formal example so I think your comment raises more questions than it answers. Wouldn't the statement that no two distinct people are the same be redundant? If there were two seperate people who where identical in every way would they be considered distinct? Clearly trying to answer such questions would purely be a matter of definitions, of which there are none at hand for this example.
$endgroup$
– Jagol95
Jan 24 at 20:15












$begingroup$
Yes, the statement that no two distinct people are the same is tautologous. It amounts to the statement $forall x y,xne yto xne y$. But it is important to recognize the difference between this (trivially true) statement and the false statement $forall x y,xne y$. In English, we often insert an implicit distinctness condition on double quantifiers (i.e. "two people cannot be in the same place at the same time"), but mathematical english does not do this (when used carefully), and it is important to notice this.
$endgroup$
– Mario Carneiro
Jan 25 at 1:52






$begingroup$
Yes, the statement that no two distinct people are the same is tautologous. It amounts to the statement $forall x y,xne yto xne y$. But it is important to recognize the difference between this (trivially true) statement and the false statement $forall x y,xne y$. In English, we often insert an implicit distinctness condition on double quantifiers (i.e. "two people cannot be in the same place at the same time"), but mathematical english does not do this (when used carefully), and it is important to notice this.
$endgroup$
– Mario Carneiro
Jan 25 at 1:52




















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