Is this representation completely reducible?












3












$begingroup$


Is these representations completely reducible?



enter image description here



Definition:



A linear representation is said to be completely reducible if every invariant subspace has an invariant complement.



But I have no idea how to apply the definition, and I know that the answer for 2 is no while that for 3 is yes, could you please clarify for me how to check the definition in each case?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Have you first found the invariant subspaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 24 at 15:11










  • $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/3083310/… @Max
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Jan 24 at 15:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Knowing the invariant subspaces, all you have to do is look at the list and check whether every element on that list has a complement that's also on the list (I'm a different Max by the way)
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 24 at 17:08












  • $begingroup$
    For number 3 the invariant subspaces are "Any subspace spanned by some set of eigenvectors of the operator $alpha$" ...... This is the answer written at the back of the book @Max
    $endgroup$
    – hopefully
    Jan 26 at 14:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @hopefully : ok well then ? Take a space $F$ in the set of invariant subspaces, and look at all other invariant subspaces : is there one of them that is a complement of $F$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 26 at 22:52
















3












$begingroup$


Is these representations completely reducible?



enter image description here



Definition:



A linear representation is said to be completely reducible if every invariant subspace has an invariant complement.



But I have no idea how to apply the definition, and I know that the answer for 2 is no while that for 3 is yes, could you please clarify for me how to check the definition in each case?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Have you first found the invariant subspaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 24 at 15:11










  • $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/3083310/… @Max
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Jan 24 at 15:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Knowing the invariant subspaces, all you have to do is look at the list and check whether every element on that list has a complement that's also on the list (I'm a different Max by the way)
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 24 at 17:08












  • $begingroup$
    For number 3 the invariant subspaces are "Any subspace spanned by some set of eigenvectors of the operator $alpha$" ...... This is the answer written at the back of the book @Max
    $endgroup$
    – hopefully
    Jan 26 at 14:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @hopefully : ok well then ? Take a space $F$ in the set of invariant subspaces, and look at all other invariant subspaces : is there one of them that is a complement of $F$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 26 at 22:52














3












3








3





$begingroup$


Is these representations completely reducible?



enter image description here



Definition:



A linear representation is said to be completely reducible if every invariant subspace has an invariant complement.



But I have no idea how to apply the definition, and I know that the answer for 2 is no while that for 3 is yes, could you please clarify for me how to check the definition in each case?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Is these representations completely reducible?



enter image description here



Definition:



A linear representation is said to be completely reducible if every invariant subspace has an invariant complement.



But I have no idea how to apply the definition, and I know that the answer for 2 is no while that for 3 is yes, could you please clarify for me how to check the definition in each case?







representation-theory invariant-theory invariant-subspace






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 24 at 15:07









IdonotknowIdonotknow

1138




1138












  • $begingroup$
    Have you first found the invariant subspaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 24 at 15:11










  • $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/3083310/… @Max
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Jan 24 at 15:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Knowing the invariant subspaces, all you have to do is look at the list and check whether every element on that list has a complement that's also on the list (I'm a different Max by the way)
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 24 at 17:08












  • $begingroup$
    For number 3 the invariant subspaces are "Any subspace spanned by some set of eigenvectors of the operator $alpha$" ...... This is the answer written at the back of the book @Max
    $endgroup$
    – hopefully
    Jan 26 at 14:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @hopefully : ok well then ? Take a space $F$ in the set of invariant subspaces, and look at all other invariant subspaces : is there one of them that is a complement of $F$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 26 at 22:52


















  • $begingroup$
    Have you first found the invariant subspaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 24 at 15:11










  • $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/3083310/… @Max
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Jan 24 at 15:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Knowing the invariant subspaces, all you have to do is look at the list and check whether every element on that list has a complement that's also on the list (I'm a different Max by the way)
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 24 at 17:08












  • $begingroup$
    For number 3 the invariant subspaces are "Any subspace spanned by some set of eigenvectors of the operator $alpha$" ...... This is the answer written at the back of the book @Max
    $endgroup$
    – hopefully
    Jan 26 at 14:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @hopefully : ok well then ? Take a space $F$ in the set of invariant subspaces, and look at all other invariant subspaces : is there one of them that is a complement of $F$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jan 26 at 22:52
















$begingroup$
Have you first found the invariant subspaces?
$endgroup$
– Max
Jan 24 at 15:11




$begingroup$
Have you first found the invariant subspaces?
$endgroup$
– Max
Jan 24 at 15:11












$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/3083310/… @Max
$endgroup$
– Idonotknow
Jan 24 at 15:12




$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/3083310/… @Max
$endgroup$
– Idonotknow
Jan 24 at 15:12




1




1




$begingroup$
Knowing the invariant subspaces, all you have to do is look at the list and check whether every element on that list has a complement that's also on the list (I'm a different Max by the way)
$endgroup$
– Max
Jan 24 at 17:08






$begingroup$
Knowing the invariant subspaces, all you have to do is look at the list and check whether every element on that list has a complement that's also on the list (I'm a different Max by the way)
$endgroup$
– Max
Jan 24 at 17:08














$begingroup$
For number 3 the invariant subspaces are "Any subspace spanned by some set of eigenvectors of the operator $alpha$" ...... This is the answer written at the back of the book @Max
$endgroup$
– hopefully
Jan 26 at 14:12




$begingroup$
For number 3 the invariant subspaces are "Any subspace spanned by some set of eigenvectors of the operator $alpha$" ...... This is the answer written at the back of the book @Max
$endgroup$
– hopefully
Jan 26 at 14:12




1




1




$begingroup$
@hopefully : ok well then ? Take a space $F$ in the set of invariant subspaces, and look at all other invariant subspaces : is there one of them that is a complement of $F$ ?
$endgroup$
– Max
Jan 26 at 22:52




$begingroup$
@hopefully : ok well then ? Take a space $F$ in the set of invariant subspaces, and look at all other invariant subspaces : is there one of them that is a complement of $F$ ?
$endgroup$
– Max
Jan 26 at 22:52










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3





+50







$begingroup$


  1. Consider polynomials of degree less than or equal to 1
    $$
    V_1=mathbb Ccdot xoplusmathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    this is clearly invariant under $F(t)$ as $F(t)$ does not change degree. Similarly consider
    $$
    V_0=mathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    the space of constant functions. It is clear that $V_0subset V_1$ and that they are both invariant under $F$. However, if we consider the complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$, $W$, then there exists some $ainmathbb C$ such that $x+ain W$. If $W$ is invariant, then we have that $L(1-a)(x+a)=x+1in W$. $W$ is a vector space so $x+a-L(1-a)(x+a)=1in W$. This means $V_0subset W$, a contradiction. Hence the space is not completely reducible.


  2. $alphain$ End$(V)$, with $Vcongmathbb C^n$, so $alpha$ has Jordan Normal form, but its characteristic polynomial has no multiplicities, so it is diagonalisable. In the diagonal basis we have that $alpha=text{diag}(lambda_1,dots,lambda_n)$. So
    $$
    F(t)=text{diag}(e^{tlambda_1},dots,e^{tlambda_n}),
    $$

    and
    $$
    V=mathbb C_{lambda_1}oplusdotsoplusmathbb C_{lambda_n},
    $$

    where $mathbb C_{lambda_i}$ is the one dimensional representation $vmapsto e^{tlambda_i}v$. So $V$ is completely reducible.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    what is the invariant complement in 3?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    you mean that the complement of $V_{1}$ in $V_{0}$ is the constant term?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Is F in 2. L and t is 1-a and f is x +a I am confused about the notation .... could you clarify it please?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $V$ is a subspace of $W$, both with an action by a group $G$, an invariant complement is a vector space $U$ such that $Gcdot U=U$ and $W=Voplus U$. A complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$ would be any one dimensional space spanned by $x-a$ for $ainmathbb C$. I showed that such a space cannot be invariant under $F(t)$ without also containing all of $V_1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 2 at 9:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $V_1$ is two dimensional and $V_0$ is one dimensional, so the complement, $W$, is a subspace of $V_1$ such that $V_0oplus W=V_1$, and so has to be one dimensional. Write $mathbf 1$ for the constant function 1, a vector in both $V_0$ and $V_1$, and $mathbf x$ for the function $x$, a vector in $V_1$. $W$ is a one dimensional vector space that sits inside $(mathbb Cmathbf 1oplus mathbb Cmathbf x)backslashmathbb Cmathbf 1$. This means that arbitrary elements of $W$ are of the form $lambdacdot(amathbf 1+mathbf x)$ for $a,lambdainmathbb C$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 3 at 9:20













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3





+50







$begingroup$


  1. Consider polynomials of degree less than or equal to 1
    $$
    V_1=mathbb Ccdot xoplusmathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    this is clearly invariant under $F(t)$ as $F(t)$ does not change degree. Similarly consider
    $$
    V_0=mathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    the space of constant functions. It is clear that $V_0subset V_1$ and that they are both invariant under $F$. However, if we consider the complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$, $W$, then there exists some $ainmathbb C$ such that $x+ain W$. If $W$ is invariant, then we have that $L(1-a)(x+a)=x+1in W$. $W$ is a vector space so $x+a-L(1-a)(x+a)=1in W$. This means $V_0subset W$, a contradiction. Hence the space is not completely reducible.


  2. $alphain$ End$(V)$, with $Vcongmathbb C^n$, so $alpha$ has Jordan Normal form, but its characteristic polynomial has no multiplicities, so it is diagonalisable. In the diagonal basis we have that $alpha=text{diag}(lambda_1,dots,lambda_n)$. So
    $$
    F(t)=text{diag}(e^{tlambda_1},dots,e^{tlambda_n}),
    $$

    and
    $$
    V=mathbb C_{lambda_1}oplusdotsoplusmathbb C_{lambda_n},
    $$

    where $mathbb C_{lambda_i}$ is the one dimensional representation $vmapsto e^{tlambda_i}v$. So $V$ is completely reducible.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    what is the invariant complement in 3?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    you mean that the complement of $V_{1}$ in $V_{0}$ is the constant term?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Is F in 2. L and t is 1-a and f is x +a I am confused about the notation .... could you clarify it please?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $V$ is a subspace of $W$, both with an action by a group $G$, an invariant complement is a vector space $U$ such that $Gcdot U=U$ and $W=Voplus U$. A complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$ would be any one dimensional space spanned by $x-a$ for $ainmathbb C$. I showed that such a space cannot be invariant under $F(t)$ without also containing all of $V_1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 2 at 9:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $V_1$ is two dimensional and $V_0$ is one dimensional, so the complement, $W$, is a subspace of $V_1$ such that $V_0oplus W=V_1$, and so has to be one dimensional. Write $mathbf 1$ for the constant function 1, a vector in both $V_0$ and $V_1$, and $mathbf x$ for the function $x$, a vector in $V_1$. $W$ is a one dimensional vector space that sits inside $(mathbb Cmathbf 1oplus mathbb Cmathbf x)backslashmathbb Cmathbf 1$. This means that arbitrary elements of $W$ are of the form $lambdacdot(amathbf 1+mathbf x)$ for $a,lambdainmathbb C$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 3 at 9:20


















3





+50







$begingroup$


  1. Consider polynomials of degree less than or equal to 1
    $$
    V_1=mathbb Ccdot xoplusmathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    this is clearly invariant under $F(t)$ as $F(t)$ does not change degree. Similarly consider
    $$
    V_0=mathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    the space of constant functions. It is clear that $V_0subset V_1$ and that they are both invariant under $F$. However, if we consider the complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$, $W$, then there exists some $ainmathbb C$ such that $x+ain W$. If $W$ is invariant, then we have that $L(1-a)(x+a)=x+1in W$. $W$ is a vector space so $x+a-L(1-a)(x+a)=1in W$. This means $V_0subset W$, a contradiction. Hence the space is not completely reducible.


  2. $alphain$ End$(V)$, with $Vcongmathbb C^n$, so $alpha$ has Jordan Normal form, but its characteristic polynomial has no multiplicities, so it is diagonalisable. In the diagonal basis we have that $alpha=text{diag}(lambda_1,dots,lambda_n)$. So
    $$
    F(t)=text{diag}(e^{tlambda_1},dots,e^{tlambda_n}),
    $$

    and
    $$
    V=mathbb C_{lambda_1}oplusdotsoplusmathbb C_{lambda_n},
    $$

    where $mathbb C_{lambda_i}$ is the one dimensional representation $vmapsto e^{tlambda_i}v$. So $V$ is completely reducible.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    what is the invariant complement in 3?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    you mean that the complement of $V_{1}$ in $V_{0}$ is the constant term?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Is F in 2. L and t is 1-a and f is x +a I am confused about the notation .... could you clarify it please?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $V$ is a subspace of $W$, both with an action by a group $G$, an invariant complement is a vector space $U$ such that $Gcdot U=U$ and $W=Voplus U$. A complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$ would be any one dimensional space spanned by $x-a$ for $ainmathbb C$. I showed that such a space cannot be invariant under $F(t)$ without also containing all of $V_1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 2 at 9:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $V_1$ is two dimensional and $V_0$ is one dimensional, so the complement, $W$, is a subspace of $V_1$ such that $V_0oplus W=V_1$, and so has to be one dimensional. Write $mathbf 1$ for the constant function 1, a vector in both $V_0$ and $V_1$, and $mathbf x$ for the function $x$, a vector in $V_1$. $W$ is a one dimensional vector space that sits inside $(mathbb Cmathbf 1oplus mathbb Cmathbf x)backslashmathbb Cmathbf 1$. This means that arbitrary elements of $W$ are of the form $lambdacdot(amathbf 1+mathbf x)$ for $a,lambdainmathbb C$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 3 at 9:20
















3





+50







3





+50



3




+50



$begingroup$


  1. Consider polynomials of degree less than or equal to 1
    $$
    V_1=mathbb Ccdot xoplusmathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    this is clearly invariant under $F(t)$ as $F(t)$ does not change degree. Similarly consider
    $$
    V_0=mathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    the space of constant functions. It is clear that $V_0subset V_1$ and that they are both invariant under $F$. However, if we consider the complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$, $W$, then there exists some $ainmathbb C$ such that $x+ain W$. If $W$ is invariant, then we have that $L(1-a)(x+a)=x+1in W$. $W$ is a vector space so $x+a-L(1-a)(x+a)=1in W$. This means $V_0subset W$, a contradiction. Hence the space is not completely reducible.


  2. $alphain$ End$(V)$, with $Vcongmathbb C^n$, so $alpha$ has Jordan Normal form, but its characteristic polynomial has no multiplicities, so it is diagonalisable. In the diagonal basis we have that $alpha=text{diag}(lambda_1,dots,lambda_n)$. So
    $$
    F(t)=text{diag}(e^{tlambda_1},dots,e^{tlambda_n}),
    $$

    and
    $$
    V=mathbb C_{lambda_1}oplusdotsoplusmathbb C_{lambda_n},
    $$

    where $mathbb C_{lambda_i}$ is the one dimensional representation $vmapsto e^{tlambda_i}v$. So $V$ is completely reducible.







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




  1. Consider polynomials of degree less than or equal to 1
    $$
    V_1=mathbb Ccdot xoplusmathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    this is clearly invariant under $F(t)$ as $F(t)$ does not change degree. Similarly consider
    $$
    V_0=mathbb Ccdot 1,
    $$

    the space of constant functions. It is clear that $V_0subset V_1$ and that they are both invariant under $F$. However, if we consider the complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$, $W$, then there exists some $ainmathbb C$ such that $x+ain W$. If $W$ is invariant, then we have that $L(1-a)(x+a)=x+1in W$. $W$ is a vector space so $x+a-L(1-a)(x+a)=1in W$. This means $V_0subset W$, a contradiction. Hence the space is not completely reducible.


  2. $alphain$ End$(V)$, with $Vcongmathbb C^n$, so $alpha$ has Jordan Normal form, but its characteristic polynomial has no multiplicities, so it is diagonalisable. In the diagonal basis we have that $alpha=text{diag}(lambda_1,dots,lambda_n)$. So
    $$
    F(t)=text{diag}(e^{tlambda_1},dots,e^{tlambda_n}),
    $$

    and
    $$
    V=mathbb C_{lambda_1}oplusdotsoplusmathbb C_{lambda_n},
    $$

    where $mathbb C_{lambda_i}$ is the one dimensional representation $vmapsto e^{tlambda_i}v$. So $V$ is completely reducible.








share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Feb 2 at 22:03

























answered Feb 1 at 11:48









Alec B-GAlec B-G

52019




52019












  • $begingroup$
    what is the invariant complement in 3?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    you mean that the complement of $V_{1}$ in $V_{0}$ is the constant term?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Is F in 2. L and t is 1-a and f is x +a I am confused about the notation .... could you clarify it please?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $V$ is a subspace of $W$, both with an action by a group $G$, an invariant complement is a vector space $U$ such that $Gcdot U=U$ and $W=Voplus U$. A complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$ would be any one dimensional space spanned by $x-a$ for $ainmathbb C$. I showed that such a space cannot be invariant under $F(t)$ without also containing all of $V_1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 2 at 9:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $V_1$ is two dimensional and $V_0$ is one dimensional, so the complement, $W$, is a subspace of $V_1$ such that $V_0oplus W=V_1$, and so has to be one dimensional. Write $mathbf 1$ for the constant function 1, a vector in both $V_0$ and $V_1$, and $mathbf x$ for the function $x$, a vector in $V_1$. $W$ is a one dimensional vector space that sits inside $(mathbb Cmathbf 1oplus mathbb Cmathbf x)backslashmathbb Cmathbf 1$. This means that arbitrary elements of $W$ are of the form $lambdacdot(amathbf 1+mathbf x)$ for $a,lambdainmathbb C$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 3 at 9:20




















  • $begingroup$
    what is the invariant complement in 3?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    you mean that the complement of $V_{1}$ in $V_{0}$ is the constant term?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Is F in 2. L and t is 1-a and f is x +a I am confused about the notation .... could you clarify it please?
    $endgroup$
    – Idonotknow
    Feb 1 at 16:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $V$ is a subspace of $W$, both with an action by a group $G$, an invariant complement is a vector space $U$ such that $Gcdot U=U$ and $W=Voplus U$. A complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$ would be any one dimensional space spanned by $x-a$ for $ainmathbb C$. I showed that such a space cannot be invariant under $F(t)$ without also containing all of $V_1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 2 at 9:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $V_1$ is two dimensional and $V_0$ is one dimensional, so the complement, $W$, is a subspace of $V_1$ such that $V_0oplus W=V_1$, and so has to be one dimensional. Write $mathbf 1$ for the constant function 1, a vector in both $V_0$ and $V_1$, and $mathbf x$ for the function $x$, a vector in $V_1$. $W$ is a one dimensional vector space that sits inside $(mathbb Cmathbf 1oplus mathbb Cmathbf x)backslashmathbb Cmathbf 1$. This means that arbitrary elements of $W$ are of the form $lambdacdot(amathbf 1+mathbf x)$ for $a,lambdainmathbb C$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alec B-G
    Feb 3 at 9:20


















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what is the invariant complement in 3?
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– Idonotknow
Feb 1 at 16:34




$begingroup$
what is the invariant complement in 3?
$endgroup$
– Idonotknow
Feb 1 at 16:34












$begingroup$
you mean that the complement of $V_{1}$ in $V_{0}$ is the constant term?
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– Idonotknow
Feb 1 at 16:36




$begingroup$
you mean that the complement of $V_{1}$ in $V_{0}$ is the constant term?
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– Idonotknow
Feb 1 at 16:36












$begingroup$
Is F in 2. L and t is 1-a and f is x +a I am confused about the notation .... could you clarify it please?
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– Idonotknow
Feb 1 at 16:39




$begingroup$
Is F in 2. L and t is 1-a and f is x +a I am confused about the notation .... could you clarify it please?
$endgroup$
– Idonotknow
Feb 1 at 16:39




1




1




$begingroup$
If $V$ is a subspace of $W$, both with an action by a group $G$, an invariant complement is a vector space $U$ such that $Gcdot U=U$ and $W=Voplus U$. A complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$ would be any one dimensional space spanned by $x-a$ for $ainmathbb C$. I showed that such a space cannot be invariant under $F(t)$ without also containing all of $V_1$.
$endgroup$
– Alec B-G
Feb 2 at 9:31






$begingroup$
If $V$ is a subspace of $W$, both with an action by a group $G$, an invariant complement is a vector space $U$ such that $Gcdot U=U$ and $W=Voplus U$. A complement of $V_1$ in $V_0$ would be any one dimensional space spanned by $x-a$ for $ainmathbb C$. I showed that such a space cannot be invariant under $F(t)$ without also containing all of $V_1$.
$endgroup$
– Alec B-G
Feb 2 at 9:31






1




1




$begingroup$
$V_1$ is two dimensional and $V_0$ is one dimensional, so the complement, $W$, is a subspace of $V_1$ such that $V_0oplus W=V_1$, and so has to be one dimensional. Write $mathbf 1$ for the constant function 1, a vector in both $V_0$ and $V_1$, and $mathbf x$ for the function $x$, a vector in $V_1$. $W$ is a one dimensional vector space that sits inside $(mathbb Cmathbf 1oplus mathbb Cmathbf x)backslashmathbb Cmathbf 1$. This means that arbitrary elements of $W$ are of the form $lambdacdot(amathbf 1+mathbf x)$ for $a,lambdainmathbb C$.
$endgroup$
– Alec B-G
Feb 3 at 9:20






$begingroup$
$V_1$ is two dimensional and $V_0$ is one dimensional, so the complement, $W$, is a subspace of $V_1$ such that $V_0oplus W=V_1$, and so has to be one dimensional. Write $mathbf 1$ for the constant function 1, a vector in both $V_0$ and $V_1$, and $mathbf x$ for the function $x$, a vector in $V_1$. $W$ is a one dimensional vector space that sits inside $(mathbb Cmathbf 1oplus mathbb Cmathbf x)backslashmathbb Cmathbf 1$. This means that arbitrary elements of $W$ are of the form $lambdacdot(amathbf 1+mathbf x)$ for $a,lambdainmathbb C$.
$endgroup$
– Alec B-G
Feb 3 at 9:20




















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