Must every manifold bundle be a fiber bundle?












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$begingroup$


I have been learning differential geometry from this lecture series by Frederic Schuller's. Here he defines a bundle (of topological manifolds) as




A triple, $(E, pi, M),$ where $E$ and $M$ are topological manifolds and $pi:E longrightarrow M$ is a surjective and continuous function.




Here he defines a fiber bundle as




A bundle $(E, pi, M)$ such that $forall p in M: text{preim}_pi big({p}big) cong F$ for some manifold $F$.




Using these definitions (which I hope are standard), does there exist some bundle of topological manifolds that is not a fiber bundle (i.e., has fibers that are not homeomorphic to each other)?



Sidenote, Schuller provides examples here and here of bundles over a set that are not fiber bundles, but the base set is not a manifold in either case, as he clarifies in this later video.



EDIT: I'll clarify that the $F$ in the definition of fiber bundle is intended to be the same $F$ for each point $p$, i.e., a fiber bundle is a bundle whose fibers are all homeomorphic to each other.










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  • 7




    $begingroup$
    This is an offensively bad definition, sure to cause confusion. Most surjective continuous maps are not fiber bundles. And the definition of fiber bundle is not even correct.
    $endgroup$
    – user98602
    Jan 24 at 17:38








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @WillG Take the projection $[0,1]to S^1=[0,1]/sim$, where here $sim$ identifies $0$ and $1$. Then the fiber above the equivalence class of $0$ has two points in it but the fiber above any other point has only one point
    $endgroup$
    – leibnewtz
    Jan 25 at 0:41






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @WillG The example has essentially nothing to do with manifolds with boundary. Some other options: collapse an arc in $S^1$ to a point; then you have a continuous map from the circle itself in which all fibers but one are points, and the remaining fiber is an arc. Or consider the exponential map $Bbb R to S^1$ restricted to $(-epsilon, 2pi+epsilon)$, which mostly mostly has 1-point preimage but has a few 2-point preimages. You can rig up self-maps of the circle so that some fibers are Cantor sets!
    $endgroup$
    – user98602
    Jan 25 at 11:08






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @leibnewtz: Unfortunately, yes, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/2176044/…
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Kohan
    Jan 25 at 16:31






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I suggest, you avoid using either definition that he gives. They are good for the intuition but you cannot prove much with these definitions; the actual definition (that is of a locally trivial fiber bundle or, more generally, a fibration in the sense of Hurewicz or Serre) is much more restrictive. Better, first read the wikipedia article: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fiber_bundle
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Kohan
    Jan 25 at 16:37
















0












$begingroup$


I have been learning differential geometry from this lecture series by Frederic Schuller's. Here he defines a bundle (of topological manifolds) as




A triple, $(E, pi, M),$ where $E$ and $M$ are topological manifolds and $pi:E longrightarrow M$ is a surjective and continuous function.




Here he defines a fiber bundle as




A bundle $(E, pi, M)$ such that $forall p in M: text{preim}_pi big({p}big) cong F$ for some manifold $F$.




Using these definitions (which I hope are standard), does there exist some bundle of topological manifolds that is not a fiber bundle (i.e., has fibers that are not homeomorphic to each other)?



Sidenote, Schuller provides examples here and here of bundles over a set that are not fiber bundles, but the base set is not a manifold in either case, as he clarifies in this later video.



EDIT: I'll clarify that the $F$ in the definition of fiber bundle is intended to be the same $F$ for each point $p$, i.e., a fiber bundle is a bundle whose fibers are all homeomorphic to each other.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 7




    $begingroup$
    This is an offensively bad definition, sure to cause confusion. Most surjective continuous maps are not fiber bundles. And the definition of fiber bundle is not even correct.
    $endgroup$
    – user98602
    Jan 24 at 17:38








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @WillG Take the projection $[0,1]to S^1=[0,1]/sim$, where here $sim$ identifies $0$ and $1$. Then the fiber above the equivalence class of $0$ has two points in it but the fiber above any other point has only one point
    $endgroup$
    – leibnewtz
    Jan 25 at 0:41






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @WillG The example has essentially nothing to do with manifolds with boundary. Some other options: collapse an arc in $S^1$ to a point; then you have a continuous map from the circle itself in which all fibers but one are points, and the remaining fiber is an arc. Or consider the exponential map $Bbb R to S^1$ restricted to $(-epsilon, 2pi+epsilon)$, which mostly mostly has 1-point preimage but has a few 2-point preimages. You can rig up self-maps of the circle so that some fibers are Cantor sets!
    $endgroup$
    – user98602
    Jan 25 at 11:08






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @leibnewtz: Unfortunately, yes, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/2176044/…
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Kohan
    Jan 25 at 16:31






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I suggest, you avoid using either definition that he gives. They are good for the intuition but you cannot prove much with these definitions; the actual definition (that is of a locally trivial fiber bundle or, more generally, a fibration in the sense of Hurewicz or Serre) is much more restrictive. Better, first read the wikipedia article: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fiber_bundle
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Kohan
    Jan 25 at 16:37














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have been learning differential geometry from this lecture series by Frederic Schuller's. Here he defines a bundle (of topological manifolds) as




A triple, $(E, pi, M),$ where $E$ and $M$ are topological manifolds and $pi:E longrightarrow M$ is a surjective and continuous function.




Here he defines a fiber bundle as




A bundle $(E, pi, M)$ such that $forall p in M: text{preim}_pi big({p}big) cong F$ for some manifold $F$.




Using these definitions (which I hope are standard), does there exist some bundle of topological manifolds that is not a fiber bundle (i.e., has fibers that are not homeomorphic to each other)?



Sidenote, Schuller provides examples here and here of bundles over a set that are not fiber bundles, but the base set is not a manifold in either case, as he clarifies in this later video.



EDIT: I'll clarify that the $F$ in the definition of fiber bundle is intended to be the same $F$ for each point $p$, i.e., a fiber bundle is a bundle whose fibers are all homeomorphic to each other.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have been learning differential geometry from this lecture series by Frederic Schuller's. Here he defines a bundle (of topological manifolds) as




A triple, $(E, pi, M),$ where $E$ and $M$ are topological manifolds and $pi:E longrightarrow M$ is a surjective and continuous function.




Here he defines a fiber bundle as




A bundle $(E, pi, M)$ such that $forall p in M: text{preim}_pi big({p}big) cong F$ for some manifold $F$.




Using these definitions (which I hope are standard), does there exist some bundle of topological manifolds that is not a fiber bundle (i.e., has fibers that are not homeomorphic to each other)?



Sidenote, Schuller provides examples here and here of bundles over a set that are not fiber bundles, but the base set is not a manifold in either case, as he clarifies in this later video.



EDIT: I'll clarify that the $F$ in the definition of fiber bundle is intended to be the same $F$ for each point $p$, i.e., a fiber bundle is a bundle whose fibers are all homeomorphic to each other.







differential-geometry manifolds fiber-bundles






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 24 at 23:44







WillG

















asked Jan 24 at 17:12









WillGWillG

488310




488310








  • 7




    $begingroup$
    This is an offensively bad definition, sure to cause confusion. Most surjective continuous maps are not fiber bundles. And the definition of fiber bundle is not even correct.
    $endgroup$
    – user98602
    Jan 24 at 17:38








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @WillG Take the projection $[0,1]to S^1=[0,1]/sim$, where here $sim$ identifies $0$ and $1$. Then the fiber above the equivalence class of $0$ has two points in it but the fiber above any other point has only one point
    $endgroup$
    – leibnewtz
    Jan 25 at 0:41






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @WillG The example has essentially nothing to do with manifolds with boundary. Some other options: collapse an arc in $S^1$ to a point; then you have a continuous map from the circle itself in which all fibers but one are points, and the remaining fiber is an arc. Or consider the exponential map $Bbb R to S^1$ restricted to $(-epsilon, 2pi+epsilon)$, which mostly mostly has 1-point preimage but has a few 2-point preimages. You can rig up self-maps of the circle so that some fibers are Cantor sets!
    $endgroup$
    – user98602
    Jan 25 at 11:08






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @leibnewtz: Unfortunately, yes, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/2176044/…
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Kohan
    Jan 25 at 16:31






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I suggest, you avoid using either definition that he gives. They are good for the intuition but you cannot prove much with these definitions; the actual definition (that is of a locally trivial fiber bundle or, more generally, a fibration in the sense of Hurewicz or Serre) is much more restrictive. Better, first read the wikipedia article: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fiber_bundle
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Kohan
    Jan 25 at 16:37














  • 7




    $begingroup$
    This is an offensively bad definition, sure to cause confusion. Most surjective continuous maps are not fiber bundles. And the definition of fiber bundle is not even correct.
    $endgroup$
    – user98602
    Jan 24 at 17:38








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @WillG Take the projection $[0,1]to S^1=[0,1]/sim$, where here $sim$ identifies $0$ and $1$. Then the fiber above the equivalence class of $0$ has two points in it but the fiber above any other point has only one point
    $endgroup$
    – leibnewtz
    Jan 25 at 0:41






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @WillG The example has essentially nothing to do with manifolds with boundary. Some other options: collapse an arc in $S^1$ to a point; then you have a continuous map from the circle itself in which all fibers but one are points, and the remaining fiber is an arc. Or consider the exponential map $Bbb R to S^1$ restricted to $(-epsilon, 2pi+epsilon)$, which mostly mostly has 1-point preimage but has a few 2-point preimages. You can rig up self-maps of the circle so that some fibers are Cantor sets!
    $endgroup$
    – user98602
    Jan 25 at 11:08






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @leibnewtz: Unfortunately, yes, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/2176044/…
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Kohan
    Jan 25 at 16:31






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I suggest, you avoid using either definition that he gives. They are good for the intuition but you cannot prove much with these definitions; the actual definition (that is of a locally trivial fiber bundle or, more generally, a fibration in the sense of Hurewicz or Serre) is much more restrictive. Better, first read the wikipedia article: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fiber_bundle
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Kohan
    Jan 25 at 16:37








7




7




$begingroup$
This is an offensively bad definition, sure to cause confusion. Most surjective continuous maps are not fiber bundles. And the definition of fiber bundle is not even correct.
$endgroup$
– user98602
Jan 24 at 17:38






$begingroup$
This is an offensively bad definition, sure to cause confusion. Most surjective continuous maps are not fiber bundles. And the definition of fiber bundle is not even correct.
$endgroup$
– user98602
Jan 24 at 17:38






1




1




$begingroup$
@WillG Take the projection $[0,1]to S^1=[0,1]/sim$, where here $sim$ identifies $0$ and $1$. Then the fiber above the equivalence class of $0$ has two points in it but the fiber above any other point has only one point
$endgroup$
– leibnewtz
Jan 25 at 0:41




$begingroup$
@WillG Take the projection $[0,1]to S^1=[0,1]/sim$, where here $sim$ identifies $0$ and $1$. Then the fiber above the equivalence class of $0$ has two points in it but the fiber above any other point has only one point
$endgroup$
– leibnewtz
Jan 25 at 0:41




2




2




$begingroup$
@WillG The example has essentially nothing to do with manifolds with boundary. Some other options: collapse an arc in $S^1$ to a point; then you have a continuous map from the circle itself in which all fibers but one are points, and the remaining fiber is an arc. Or consider the exponential map $Bbb R to S^1$ restricted to $(-epsilon, 2pi+epsilon)$, which mostly mostly has 1-point preimage but has a few 2-point preimages. You can rig up self-maps of the circle so that some fibers are Cantor sets!
$endgroup$
– user98602
Jan 25 at 11:08




$begingroup$
@WillG The example has essentially nothing to do with manifolds with boundary. Some other options: collapse an arc in $S^1$ to a point; then you have a continuous map from the circle itself in which all fibers but one are points, and the remaining fiber is an arc. Or consider the exponential map $Bbb R to S^1$ restricted to $(-epsilon, 2pi+epsilon)$, which mostly mostly has 1-point preimage but has a few 2-point preimages. You can rig up self-maps of the circle so that some fibers are Cantor sets!
$endgroup$
– user98602
Jan 25 at 11:08




2




2




$begingroup$
@leibnewtz: Unfortunately, yes, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/2176044/…
$endgroup$
– Moishe Kohan
Jan 25 at 16:31




$begingroup$
@leibnewtz: Unfortunately, yes, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/2176044/…
$endgroup$
– Moishe Kohan
Jan 25 at 16:31




2




2




$begingroup$
I suggest, you avoid using either definition that he gives. They are good for the intuition but you cannot prove much with these definitions; the actual definition (that is of a locally trivial fiber bundle or, more generally, a fibration in the sense of Hurewicz or Serre) is much more restrictive. Better, first read the wikipedia article: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fiber_bundle
$endgroup$
– Moishe Kohan
Jan 25 at 16:37




$begingroup$
I suggest, you avoid using either definition that he gives. They are good for the intuition but you cannot prove much with these definitions; the actual definition (that is of a locally trivial fiber bundle or, more generally, a fibration in the sense of Hurewicz or Serre) is much more restrictive. Better, first read the wikipedia article: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fiber_bundle
$endgroup$
– Moishe Kohan
Jan 25 at 16:37










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