show that $fp(frac{1}{x^2})$ defines a distribution?












3












$begingroup$


let $phi$ be a test function, let $epsilon > 0$, then :



$$langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle = lim_{epsilon to 0} [int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x)}{x^2}dx - 2frac{phi(0)}{epsilon}]$$



show that this defines a distribution



my attempt :



let $K = [-m,m]$ such that $suppphi subset K$



let's first rewrite the expression without the limit :



$$int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x)}{x^2} dx - 2frac{phi(0)}{epsilon} = int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx = int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx$$



let's apply a taylor expansion with integral remainder to $phi$



$$phi(x) = phi(0)+xphi'(0) +x^2int_0^1phi''(xt)(1-t)dt = phi(0)+xphi'(0) +x^2psi(x)$$



we also have $|psi(x)| leq sup_{K} |phi''|$



so putting all these back into the equation we get :



$$int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx = int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi'(0) }{x} dx + int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} psi(x) dx$$



first term is zero because we're integrating an odd function over a symetric interval.



and by the dominated convergence theorem we get :



$$langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle = int_{mgeq |x|} psi(x) dx $$



and



$$|langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle| leq 2m sup_K|phi''|$$



so it defines a distribution of order $leq 2$



linearity is obvious so I think I'm done.



is my work all right ?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    let $phi$ be a test function, let $epsilon > 0$, then :



    $$langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle = lim_{epsilon to 0} [int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x)}{x^2}dx - 2frac{phi(0)}{epsilon}]$$



    show that this defines a distribution



    my attempt :



    let $K = [-m,m]$ such that $suppphi subset K$



    let's first rewrite the expression without the limit :



    $$int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x)}{x^2} dx - 2frac{phi(0)}{epsilon} = int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx = int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx$$



    let's apply a taylor expansion with integral remainder to $phi$



    $$phi(x) = phi(0)+xphi'(0) +x^2int_0^1phi''(xt)(1-t)dt = phi(0)+xphi'(0) +x^2psi(x)$$



    we also have $|psi(x)| leq sup_{K} |phi''|$



    so putting all these back into the equation we get :



    $$int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx = int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi'(0) }{x} dx + int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} psi(x) dx$$



    first term is zero because we're integrating an odd function over a symetric interval.



    and by the dominated convergence theorem we get :



    $$langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle = int_{mgeq |x|} psi(x) dx $$



    and



    $$|langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle| leq 2m sup_K|phi''|$$



    so it defines a distribution of order $leq 2$



    linearity is obvious so I think I'm done.



    is my work all right ?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      let $phi$ be a test function, let $epsilon > 0$, then :



      $$langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle = lim_{epsilon to 0} [int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x)}{x^2}dx - 2frac{phi(0)}{epsilon}]$$



      show that this defines a distribution



      my attempt :



      let $K = [-m,m]$ such that $suppphi subset K$



      let's first rewrite the expression without the limit :



      $$int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x)}{x^2} dx - 2frac{phi(0)}{epsilon} = int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx = int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx$$



      let's apply a taylor expansion with integral remainder to $phi$



      $$phi(x) = phi(0)+xphi'(0) +x^2int_0^1phi''(xt)(1-t)dt = phi(0)+xphi'(0) +x^2psi(x)$$



      we also have $|psi(x)| leq sup_{K} |phi''|$



      so putting all these back into the equation we get :



      $$int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx = int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi'(0) }{x} dx + int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} psi(x) dx$$



      first term is zero because we're integrating an odd function over a symetric interval.



      and by the dominated convergence theorem we get :



      $$langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle = int_{mgeq |x|} psi(x) dx $$



      and



      $$|langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle| leq 2m sup_K|phi''|$$



      so it defines a distribution of order $leq 2$



      linearity is obvious so I think I'm done.



      is my work all right ?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      let $phi$ be a test function, let $epsilon > 0$, then :



      $$langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle = lim_{epsilon to 0} [int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x)}{x^2}dx - 2frac{phi(0)}{epsilon}]$$



      show that this defines a distribution



      my attempt :



      let $K = [-m,m]$ such that $suppphi subset K$



      let's first rewrite the expression without the limit :



      $$int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x)}{x^2} dx - 2frac{phi(0)}{epsilon} = int_{|x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx = int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx$$



      let's apply a taylor expansion with integral remainder to $phi$



      $$phi(x) = phi(0)+xphi'(0) +x^2int_0^1phi''(xt)(1-t)dt = phi(0)+xphi'(0) +x^2psi(x)$$



      we also have $|psi(x)| leq sup_{K} |phi''|$



      so putting all these back into the equation we get :



      $$int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi(x) - phi(0)}{x^2} dx = int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} frac{phi'(0) }{x} dx + int_{mgeq |x| geq epsilon} psi(x) dx$$



      first term is zero because we're integrating an odd function over a symetric interval.



      and by the dominated convergence theorem we get :



      $$langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle = int_{mgeq |x|} psi(x) dx $$



      and



      $$|langle fp(frac{1}{x^2}),phirangle| leq 2m sup_K|phi''|$$



      so it defines a distribution of order $leq 2$



      linearity is obvious so I think I'm done.



      is my work all right ?







      proof-verification distribution-theory






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      asked Jan 28 at 16:44









      rapidracimrapidracim

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