Subset of a metric space is a metric space.












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I have a question? Why is it that every subset of a metric space is a metric space? I mean what if the subset is the empty set, then it can't be a metric space, right? because a metric space is by definition a non-empty set. So would I be correct to say that every non-empty subset of a metric space is a metric space? But i'm confused because since compact sets are metric spaces, and every finite set is a compact set, doesn't that mean that the empty set is compact? Therefore a metric space by definition?










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  • $begingroup$
    I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:35










  • $begingroup$
    I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
    $endgroup$
    – angryavian
    Jan 20 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:37










  • $begingroup$
    @angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
    $endgroup$
    – mathsssislife
    Jan 20 at 1:41












  • $begingroup$
    It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:44
















0












$begingroup$


I have a question? Why is it that every subset of a metric space is a metric space? I mean what if the subset is the empty set, then it can't be a metric space, right? because a metric space is by definition a non-empty set. So would I be correct to say that every non-empty subset of a metric space is a metric space? But i'm confused because since compact sets are metric spaces, and every finite set is a compact set, doesn't that mean that the empty set is compact? Therefore a metric space by definition?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:35










  • $begingroup$
    I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
    $endgroup$
    – angryavian
    Jan 20 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:37










  • $begingroup$
    @angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
    $endgroup$
    – mathsssislife
    Jan 20 at 1:41












  • $begingroup$
    It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:44














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have a question? Why is it that every subset of a metric space is a metric space? I mean what if the subset is the empty set, then it can't be a metric space, right? because a metric space is by definition a non-empty set. So would I be correct to say that every non-empty subset of a metric space is a metric space? But i'm confused because since compact sets are metric spaces, and every finite set is a compact set, doesn't that mean that the empty set is compact? Therefore a metric space by definition?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have a question? Why is it that every subset of a metric space is a metric space? I mean what if the subset is the empty set, then it can't be a metric space, right? because a metric space is by definition a non-empty set. So would I be correct to say that every non-empty subset of a metric space is a metric space? But i'm confused because since compact sets are metric spaces, and every finite set is a compact set, doesn't that mean that the empty set is compact? Therefore a metric space by definition?







real-analysis general-topology analysis proof-verification proof-explanation






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edited Jan 20 at 1:36







mathsssislife

















asked Jan 20 at 1:33









mathsssislifemathsssislife

448




448












  • $begingroup$
    I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:35










  • $begingroup$
    I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
    $endgroup$
    – angryavian
    Jan 20 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:37










  • $begingroup$
    @angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
    $endgroup$
    – mathsssislife
    Jan 20 at 1:41












  • $begingroup$
    It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:44


















  • $begingroup$
    I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:35










  • $begingroup$
    I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
    $endgroup$
    – angryavian
    Jan 20 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:37










  • $begingroup$
    @angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
    $endgroup$
    – mathsssislife
    Jan 20 at 1:41












  • $begingroup$
    It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 20 at 1:44
















$begingroup$
I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:35




$begingroup$
I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:35












$begingroup$
I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 20 at 1:36




$begingroup$
I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 20 at 1:36












$begingroup$
I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:37




$begingroup$
I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:37












$begingroup$
@angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
$endgroup$
– mathsssislife
Jan 20 at 1:41






$begingroup$
@angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
$endgroup$
– mathsssislife
Jan 20 at 1:41














$begingroup$
It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:44




$begingroup$
It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:44










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.






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  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 20 at 9:49











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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 20 at 9:49
















1












$begingroup$

I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 20 at 9:49














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$begingroup$

I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.






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I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.







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answered Jan 20 at 1:37









YuiTo ChengYuiTo Cheng

1,9142633




1,9142633












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 20 at 9:49


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 20 at 9:49
















$begingroup$
Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49




$begingroup$
Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49


















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