Subset of a metric space is a metric space.
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I have a question? Why is it that every subset of a metric space is a metric space? I mean what if the subset is the empty set, then it can't be a metric space, right? because a metric space is by definition a non-empty set. So would I be correct to say that every non-empty subset of a metric space is a metric space? But i'm confused because since compact sets are metric spaces, and every finite set is a compact set, doesn't that mean that the empty set is compact? Therefore a metric space by definition?
real-analysis general-topology analysis proof-verification proof-explanation
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show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
I have a question? Why is it that every subset of a metric space is a metric space? I mean what if the subset is the empty set, then it can't be a metric space, right? because a metric space is by definition a non-empty set. So would I be correct to say that every non-empty subset of a metric space is a metric space? But i'm confused because since compact sets are metric spaces, and every finite set is a compact set, doesn't that mean that the empty set is compact? Therefore a metric space by definition?
real-analysis general-topology analysis proof-verification proof-explanation
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I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
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– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:35
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I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
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– angryavian
Jan 20 at 1:36
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I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
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– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:37
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@angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
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– mathsssislife
Jan 20 at 1:41
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It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:44
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
I have a question? Why is it that every subset of a metric space is a metric space? I mean what if the subset is the empty set, then it can't be a metric space, right? because a metric space is by definition a non-empty set. So would I be correct to say that every non-empty subset of a metric space is a metric space? But i'm confused because since compact sets are metric spaces, and every finite set is a compact set, doesn't that mean that the empty set is compact? Therefore a metric space by definition?
real-analysis general-topology analysis proof-verification proof-explanation
$endgroup$
I have a question? Why is it that every subset of a metric space is a metric space? I mean what if the subset is the empty set, then it can't be a metric space, right? because a metric space is by definition a non-empty set. So would I be correct to say that every non-empty subset of a metric space is a metric space? But i'm confused because since compact sets are metric spaces, and every finite set is a compact set, doesn't that mean that the empty set is compact? Therefore a metric space by definition?
real-analysis general-topology analysis proof-verification proof-explanation
real-analysis general-topology analysis proof-verification proof-explanation
edited Jan 20 at 1:36
mathsssislife
asked Jan 20 at 1:33
mathsssislifemathsssislife
448
448
$begingroup$
I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:35
$begingroup$
I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 20 at 1:36
$begingroup$
I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:37
$begingroup$
@angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
$endgroup$
– mathsssislife
Jan 20 at 1:41
$begingroup$
It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:44
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:35
$begingroup$
I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 20 at 1:36
$begingroup$
I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:37
$begingroup$
@angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
$endgroup$
– mathsssislife
Jan 20 at 1:41
$begingroup$
It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:44
$begingroup$
I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:35
$begingroup$
I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:35
$begingroup$
I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 20 at 1:36
$begingroup$
I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 20 at 1:36
$begingroup$
I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:37
$begingroup$
I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:37
$begingroup$
@angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
$endgroup$
– mathsssislife
Jan 20 at 1:41
$begingroup$
@angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
$endgroup$
– mathsssislife
Jan 20 at 1:41
$begingroup$
It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:44
$begingroup$
It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:44
|
show 3 more comments
1 Answer
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I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.
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Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
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– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
I think a metric space can be empty, see Wikipedia.
answered Jan 20 at 1:37


YuiTo ChengYuiTo Cheng
1,9142633
1,9142633
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Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49
$begingroup$
Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49
$begingroup$
Yes. Or see General Topology by R. Engelking, or almost any random textbook on the subject.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Jan 20 at 9:49
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I guess it's possible, but "my" definition of metric space allows $emptyset$. Not that it matters.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:35
$begingroup$
I suppose it depends on your definition of metric space. The definition that I am familiar with allows the empty set. Either way I think this is not an important question to ask since the empty set is not an interesting space...
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Jan 20 at 1:36
$begingroup$
I will always laugh at whoever it was here that had that story from their grad school years about "the keeper of the empty set."
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:37
$begingroup$
@angryavian what if I wanted to prove that a subset of a metric space has a following property that for every element in the set P(x), how would I do that if the empty set is a subset? would I be incorrect to say that if I have something that said Let S $subset$ X. Prove $forall x in S$ P(x), then I must only consider the non- empty sets? or is it still true vacously? what about $forall x in S exists$? or $exists$.....
$endgroup$
– mathsssislife
Jan 20 at 1:41
$begingroup$
It's true vacuously, but no one cares. It's not going to suddenly prove some great big theorem because you can apply it to the empty set.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 20 at 1:44