Given $k$, for every $n>1$, constructing a set of size $n$ of non-zero integers having gcd $k$ so that no...
$begingroup$
For a finite subset $S subseteq mathbb Z setminus {0}$, let us say $d=gcd S$ iff $d>0 $ , $ d|a,forall a in S$ and $m|a,forall ain S implies m|d$.
My question is:
Does there exist a positive integer $k$ such that the following holds : for every $n>1, exists $ a finite $X_n subseteq mathbb Zsetminus {0}$ such that $|X_n|=n$ , $k=gcd X_n$ but $gcd (X)ne k$ for every proper subset $X subsetneq X_n$ ?
combinatorics number-theory abelian-groups greatest-common-divisor principal-ideal-domains
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
For a finite subset $S subseteq mathbb Z setminus {0}$, let us say $d=gcd S$ iff $d>0 $ , $ d|a,forall a in S$ and $m|a,forall ain S implies m|d$.
My question is:
Does there exist a positive integer $k$ such that the following holds : for every $n>1, exists $ a finite $X_n subseteq mathbb Zsetminus {0}$ such that $|X_n|=n$ , $k=gcd X_n$ but $gcd (X)ne k$ for every proper subset $X subsetneq X_n$ ?
combinatorics number-theory abelian-groups greatest-common-divisor principal-ideal-domains
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
For a finite subset $S subseteq mathbb Z setminus {0}$, let us say $d=gcd S$ iff $d>0 $ , $ d|a,forall a in S$ and $m|a,forall ain S implies m|d$.
My question is:
Does there exist a positive integer $k$ such that the following holds : for every $n>1, exists $ a finite $X_n subseteq mathbb Zsetminus {0}$ such that $|X_n|=n$ , $k=gcd X_n$ but $gcd (X)ne k$ for every proper subset $X subsetneq X_n$ ?
combinatorics number-theory abelian-groups greatest-common-divisor principal-ideal-domains
$endgroup$
For a finite subset $S subseteq mathbb Z setminus {0}$, let us say $d=gcd S$ iff $d>0 $ , $ d|a,forall a in S$ and $m|a,forall ain S implies m|d$.
My question is:
Does there exist a positive integer $k$ such that the following holds : for every $n>1, exists $ a finite $X_n subseteq mathbb Zsetminus {0}$ such that $|X_n|=n$ , $k=gcd X_n$ but $gcd (X)ne k$ for every proper subset $X subsetneq X_n$ ?
combinatorics number-theory abelian-groups greatest-common-divisor principal-ideal-domains
combinatorics number-theory abelian-groups greatest-common-divisor principal-ideal-domains
asked Feb 1 at 22:55
user521337user521337
1,2201417
1,2201417
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1 Answer
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It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.
Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$
Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.
Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$
To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
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– Hagen von Eitzen
Feb 1 at 23:19
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@HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
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– lulu
Feb 1 at 23:21
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Your Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.
Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$
Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.
Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$
To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Feb 1 at 23:19
$begingroup$
@HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Feb 1 at 23:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.
Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$
Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.
Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$
To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Feb 1 at 23:19
$begingroup$
@HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Feb 1 at 23:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.
Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$
Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.
Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$
To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.
$endgroup$
It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.
Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$
Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.
Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$
To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.
edited Feb 1 at 23:30
answered Feb 1 at 23:03
lulululu
43.6k25081
43.6k25081
$begingroup$
The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Feb 1 at 23:19
$begingroup$
@HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Feb 1 at 23:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Feb 1 at 23:19
$begingroup$
@HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Feb 1 at 23:21
$begingroup$
The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Feb 1 at 23:19
$begingroup$
The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Feb 1 at 23:19
$begingroup$
@HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Feb 1 at 23:21
$begingroup$
@HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Feb 1 at 23:21
add a comment |
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