Given $k$, for every $n>1$, constructing a set of size $n$ of non-zero integers having gcd $k$ so that no...












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For a finite subset $S subseteq mathbb Z setminus {0}$, let us say $d=gcd S$ iff $d>0 $ , $ d|a,forall a in S$ and $m|a,forall ain S implies m|d$.



My question is:



Does there exist a positive integer $k$ such that the following holds : for every $n>1, exists $ a finite $X_n subseteq mathbb Zsetminus {0}$ such that $|X_n|=n$ , $k=gcd X_n$ but $gcd (X)ne k$ for every proper subset $X subsetneq X_n$ ?










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    $begingroup$


    For a finite subset $S subseteq mathbb Z setminus {0}$, let us say $d=gcd S$ iff $d>0 $ , $ d|a,forall a in S$ and $m|a,forall ain S implies m|d$.



    My question is:



    Does there exist a positive integer $k$ such that the following holds : for every $n>1, exists $ a finite $X_n subseteq mathbb Zsetminus {0}$ such that $|X_n|=n$ , $k=gcd X_n$ but $gcd (X)ne k$ for every proper subset $X subsetneq X_n$ ?










    share|cite|improve this question









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      0





      $begingroup$


      For a finite subset $S subseteq mathbb Z setminus {0}$, let us say $d=gcd S$ iff $d>0 $ , $ d|a,forall a in S$ and $m|a,forall ain S implies m|d$.



      My question is:



      Does there exist a positive integer $k$ such that the following holds : for every $n>1, exists $ a finite $X_n subseteq mathbb Zsetminus {0}$ such that $|X_n|=n$ , $k=gcd X_n$ but $gcd (X)ne k$ for every proper subset $X subsetneq X_n$ ?










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      $endgroup$




      For a finite subset $S subseteq mathbb Z setminus {0}$, let us say $d=gcd S$ iff $d>0 $ , $ d|a,forall a in S$ and $m|a,forall ain S implies m|d$.



      My question is:



      Does there exist a positive integer $k$ such that the following holds : for every $n>1, exists $ a finite $X_n subseteq mathbb Zsetminus {0}$ such that $|X_n|=n$ , $k=gcd X_n$ but $gcd (X)ne k$ for every proper subset $X subsetneq X_n$ ?







      combinatorics number-theory abelian-groups greatest-common-divisor principal-ideal-domains






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      asked Feb 1 at 22:55









      user521337user521337

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          $begingroup$

          It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.



          Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$



          Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.



          Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$



          To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.






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          • $begingroup$
            The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
            $endgroup$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Feb 1 at 23:19












          • $begingroup$
            @HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
            $endgroup$
            – lulu
            Feb 1 at 23:21












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          $begingroup$

          It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.



          Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$



          Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.



          Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$



          To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
            $endgroup$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Feb 1 at 23:19












          • $begingroup$
            @HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
            $endgroup$
            – lulu
            Feb 1 at 23:21
















          1












          $begingroup$

          It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.



          Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$



          Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.



          Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$



          To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
            $endgroup$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Feb 1 at 23:19












          • $begingroup$
            @HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
            $endgroup$
            – lulu
            Feb 1 at 23:21














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.



          Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$



          Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.



          Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$



          To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          It's easy to construct such a set, for any $k,n$.



          Let ${p_1,cdots, p_n}$ be distinct primes such that none of them divide $k$. Then define $$q_i=frac 1{p_i}times prod_{j=1}^np_j$$



          Thus, $q_i$ is the product of all the $p_j's$ other than $p_i$.



          Now define $$x_i=q_itimes kquad text {and}quad X={x_i}$$



          To see that this works, note first that it is clear that $k=gcd(X)$ since $k$ is a common divisor of all the $x_i$, and none of the $p_i$ divide all the ${x_i}$ Moreover if $S$ is a proper subset of $X$ then we can find some $x_inotin S$ in which case each element of $S$ is divisible by $p_ik$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Feb 1 at 23:30

























          answered Feb 1 at 23:03









          lulululu

          43.6k25081




          43.6k25081












          • $begingroup$
            The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
            $endgroup$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Feb 1 at 23:19












          • $begingroup$
            @HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
            $endgroup$
            – lulu
            Feb 1 at 23:21


















          • $begingroup$
            The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
            $endgroup$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Feb 1 at 23:19












          • $begingroup$
            @HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
            $endgroup$
            – lulu
            Feb 1 at 23:21
















          $begingroup$
          The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
          $endgroup$
          – Hagen von Eitzen
          Feb 1 at 23:19






          $begingroup$
          The condition "none of them divide $k$" is not needed (though it allows your nice simple formulation of the proof)
          $endgroup$
          – Hagen von Eitzen
          Feb 1 at 23:19














          $begingroup$
          @HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
          $endgroup$
          – lulu
          Feb 1 at 23:21




          $begingroup$
          @HagenvonEitzen Yeah, I left it in precisely for that simplicity.
          $endgroup$
          – lulu
          Feb 1 at 23:21


















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