Convergence in operator norm doesn't imply uniform convergence, examples?












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I am learning about functional analysis and the relation between operator norm convergence and uniform convergence is not so clear to me. I think that uniform convergence imply convergence in operator norm since if $forall epsilon exists N$ such that if $n>N$ then $||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ $forall x$ then $sup_{||x|| le 1} ||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ for $n>N$.



If we just have convergence in norm, it feels like we don't have necessarily uniform convergence but I cannot find counter-examples.



PS: there was this question without a clear answer (to me at least).










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    $begingroup$


    I am learning about functional analysis and the relation between operator norm convergence and uniform convergence is not so clear to me. I think that uniform convergence imply convergence in operator norm since if $forall epsilon exists N$ such that if $n>N$ then $||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ $forall x$ then $sup_{||x|| le 1} ||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ for $n>N$.



    If we just have convergence in norm, it feels like we don't have necessarily uniform convergence but I cannot find counter-examples.



    PS: there was this question without a clear answer (to me at least).










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I am learning about functional analysis and the relation between operator norm convergence and uniform convergence is not so clear to me. I think that uniform convergence imply convergence in operator norm since if $forall epsilon exists N$ such that if $n>N$ then $||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ $forall x$ then $sup_{||x|| le 1} ||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ for $n>N$.



      If we just have convergence in norm, it feels like we don't have necessarily uniform convergence but I cannot find counter-examples.



      PS: there was this question without a clear answer (to me at least).










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am learning about functional analysis and the relation between operator norm convergence and uniform convergence is not so clear to me. I think that uniform convergence imply convergence in operator norm since if $forall epsilon exists N$ such that if $n>N$ then $||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ $forall x$ then $sup_{||x|| le 1} ||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ for $n>N$.



      If we just have convergence in norm, it feels like we don't have necessarily uniform convergence but I cannot find counter-examples.



      PS: there was this question without a clear answer (to me at least).







      functional-analysis






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      asked Jan 6 at 14:35









      roi_saumonroi_saumon

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          $begingroup$

          The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:





          Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.





          Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:





            Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.





            Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:





              Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.





              Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















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                0





                $begingroup$

                The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:





                Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.





                Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:





                Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.





                Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 6 at 17:12









                David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

                60k43994




                60k43994






























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