Convergence in operator norm doesn't imply uniform convergence, examples?
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I am learning about functional analysis and the relation between operator norm convergence and uniform convergence is not so clear to me. I think that uniform convergence imply convergence in operator norm since if $forall epsilon exists N$ such that if $n>N$ then $||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ $forall x$ then $sup_{||x|| le 1} ||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ for $n>N$.
If we just have convergence in norm, it feels like we don't have necessarily uniform convergence but I cannot find counter-examples.
PS: there was this question without a clear answer (to me at least).
functional-analysis
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I am learning about functional analysis and the relation between operator norm convergence and uniform convergence is not so clear to me. I think that uniform convergence imply convergence in operator norm since if $forall epsilon exists N$ such that if $n>N$ then $||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ $forall x$ then $sup_{||x|| le 1} ||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ for $n>N$.
If we just have convergence in norm, it feels like we don't have necessarily uniform convergence but I cannot find counter-examples.
PS: there was this question without a clear answer (to me at least).
functional-analysis
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am learning about functional analysis and the relation between operator norm convergence and uniform convergence is not so clear to me. I think that uniform convergence imply convergence in operator norm since if $forall epsilon exists N$ such that if $n>N$ then $||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ $forall x$ then $sup_{||x|| le 1} ||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ for $n>N$.
If we just have convergence in norm, it feels like we don't have necessarily uniform convergence but I cannot find counter-examples.
PS: there was this question without a clear answer (to me at least).
functional-analysis
$endgroup$
I am learning about functional analysis and the relation between operator norm convergence and uniform convergence is not so clear to me. I think that uniform convergence imply convergence in operator norm since if $forall epsilon exists N$ such that if $n>N$ then $||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ $forall x$ then $sup_{||x|| le 1} ||T_n(x)-T(x)|| < epsilon$ for $n>N$.
If we just have convergence in norm, it feels like we don't have necessarily uniform convergence but I cannot find counter-examples.
PS: there was this question without a clear answer (to me at least).
functional-analysis
functional-analysis
asked Jan 6 at 14:35
roi_saumonroi_saumon
53028
53028
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The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:
Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.
Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:
Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.
Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:
Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.
Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:
Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.
Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?
$endgroup$
The following should allow to find counterexamples - it also explains why the notion of uniform convergence doesn't come up in this context:
Exercise. Suppose $U$ and $V$ are normed vector spaces and $T_n:Uto V$ is linear for $n=1,2dots$. If $T_nto T$ uniformly then there exists $N$ such that $T_n=T$ for all $n>N$.
Hint: What does $||T_n(cx)-T(cx)||<epsilon$ tell you about $||T_n(x)-T(x)||$?
answered Jan 6 at 17:12
David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich
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