Definition clarification of analytic continuation of holomorphic function












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I was given the definition of anlytic continuation as in Stein's book- given two regions $Omegasubset Omega'$
for analytic functions $F:Omega'to mathbb{C}$ is an analytic continuation of $f:Omega to mathbb{C}$ if $F$ agrees with $f$ on $Omega$. I know that $sin:mathbb{C}to mathbb{C}$ is an analytic continuation of $sin:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ because they agree on $mathbb{R}$, but this is not a region in $mathbb{C}$, so how does that add up with the defintion?










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    $begingroup$


    I was given the definition of anlytic continuation as in Stein's book- given two regions $Omegasubset Omega'$
    for analytic functions $F:Omega'to mathbb{C}$ is an analytic continuation of $f:Omega to mathbb{C}$ if $F$ agrees with $f$ on $Omega$. I know that $sin:mathbb{C}to mathbb{C}$ is an analytic continuation of $sin:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ because they agree on $mathbb{R}$, but this is not a region in $mathbb{C}$, so how does that add up with the defintion?










    share|cite|improve this question











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      0












      0








      0


      0



      $begingroup$


      I was given the definition of anlytic continuation as in Stein's book- given two regions $Omegasubset Omega'$
      for analytic functions $F:Omega'to mathbb{C}$ is an analytic continuation of $f:Omega to mathbb{C}$ if $F$ agrees with $f$ on $Omega$. I know that $sin:mathbb{C}to mathbb{C}$ is an analytic continuation of $sin:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ because they agree on $mathbb{R}$, but this is not a region in $mathbb{C}$, so how does that add up with the defintion?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I was given the definition of anlytic continuation as in Stein's book- given two regions $Omegasubset Omega'$
      for analytic functions $F:Omega'to mathbb{C}$ is an analytic continuation of $f:Omega to mathbb{C}$ if $F$ agrees with $f$ on $Omega$. I know that $sin:mathbb{C}to mathbb{C}$ is an analytic continuation of $sin:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ because they agree on $mathbb{R}$, but this is not a region in $mathbb{C}$, so how does that add up with the defintion?







      complex-analysis definition holomorphic-functions analytic-continuation






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      edited Jan 18 at 11:21









      José Carlos Santos

      164k22131234




      164k22131234










      asked Jan 18 at 10:44









      Simon GreenSimon Green

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      845






















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          $begingroup$

          There is some ambiguity here (not in what you wrote, which is perfectly clear, but in Stein's textbook). Sometimes, while writing about analytic continuation, Stein indeed assumes that $Omega$ and $Omega'$ are regions. But when finally Stein states a theorem about analytic continuation, the statement is:




          Theorem: Suppose $f$ is a holomorphic function in a region $Omega$ that vanishes on a sequence of distinct points with a limit point in $Omega$. Then $f$ is identically $0$.




          As you can see, when it is stated like this, the theorem on analytic continuation applies indeed to the situation that you described.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think it answered my question; We know that $sin(z)$ agrees with $sin(x)$ on $mathbb{R}$, and I want to show that this extantion is unique- this is where I use the theorem you mentioned, correct? Thanks for your answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Simon Green
            Jan 18 at 11:10








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jan 18 at 11:20











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          $begingroup$

          There is some ambiguity here (not in what you wrote, which is perfectly clear, but in Stein's textbook). Sometimes, while writing about analytic continuation, Stein indeed assumes that $Omega$ and $Omega'$ are regions. But when finally Stein states a theorem about analytic continuation, the statement is:




          Theorem: Suppose $f$ is a holomorphic function in a region $Omega$ that vanishes on a sequence of distinct points with a limit point in $Omega$. Then $f$ is identically $0$.




          As you can see, when it is stated like this, the theorem on analytic continuation applies indeed to the situation that you described.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think it answered my question; We know that $sin(z)$ agrees with $sin(x)$ on $mathbb{R}$, and I want to show that this extantion is unique- this is where I use the theorem you mentioned, correct? Thanks for your answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Simon Green
            Jan 18 at 11:10








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jan 18 at 11:20
















          1












          $begingroup$

          There is some ambiguity here (not in what you wrote, which is perfectly clear, but in Stein's textbook). Sometimes, while writing about analytic continuation, Stein indeed assumes that $Omega$ and $Omega'$ are regions. But when finally Stein states a theorem about analytic continuation, the statement is:




          Theorem: Suppose $f$ is a holomorphic function in a region $Omega$ that vanishes on a sequence of distinct points with a limit point in $Omega$. Then $f$ is identically $0$.




          As you can see, when it is stated like this, the theorem on analytic continuation applies indeed to the situation that you described.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think it answered my question; We know that $sin(z)$ agrees with $sin(x)$ on $mathbb{R}$, and I want to show that this extantion is unique- this is where I use the theorem you mentioned, correct? Thanks for your answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Simon Green
            Jan 18 at 11:10








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jan 18 at 11:20














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          There is some ambiguity here (not in what you wrote, which is perfectly clear, but in Stein's textbook). Sometimes, while writing about analytic continuation, Stein indeed assumes that $Omega$ and $Omega'$ are regions. But when finally Stein states a theorem about analytic continuation, the statement is:




          Theorem: Suppose $f$ is a holomorphic function in a region $Omega$ that vanishes on a sequence of distinct points with a limit point in $Omega$. Then $f$ is identically $0$.




          As you can see, when it is stated like this, the theorem on analytic continuation applies indeed to the situation that you described.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          There is some ambiguity here (not in what you wrote, which is perfectly clear, but in Stein's textbook). Sometimes, while writing about analytic continuation, Stein indeed assumes that $Omega$ and $Omega'$ are regions. But when finally Stein states a theorem about analytic continuation, the statement is:




          Theorem: Suppose $f$ is a holomorphic function in a region $Omega$ that vanishes on a sequence of distinct points with a limit point in $Omega$. Then $f$ is identically $0$.




          As you can see, when it is stated like this, the theorem on analytic continuation applies indeed to the situation that you described.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 18 at 10:56









          José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

          164k22131234




          164k22131234












          • $begingroup$
            I think it answered my question; We know that $sin(z)$ agrees with $sin(x)$ on $mathbb{R}$, and I want to show that this extantion is unique- this is where I use the theorem you mentioned, correct? Thanks for your answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Simon Green
            Jan 18 at 11:10








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jan 18 at 11:20


















          • $begingroup$
            I think it answered my question; We know that $sin(z)$ agrees with $sin(x)$ on $mathbb{R}$, and I want to show that this extantion is unique- this is where I use the theorem you mentioned, correct? Thanks for your answer!
            $endgroup$
            – Simon Green
            Jan 18 at 11:10








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jan 18 at 11:20
















          $begingroup$
          I think it answered my question; We know that $sin(z)$ agrees with $sin(x)$ on $mathbb{R}$, and I want to show that this extantion is unique- this is where I use the theorem you mentioned, correct? Thanks for your answer!
          $endgroup$
          – Simon Green
          Jan 18 at 11:10






          $begingroup$
          I think it answered my question; We know that $sin(z)$ agrees with $sin(x)$ on $mathbb{R}$, and I want to show that this extantion is unique- this is where I use the theorem you mentioned, correct? Thanks for your answer!
          $endgroup$
          – Simon Green
          Jan 18 at 11:10






          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Yes, that is correct.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Jan 18 at 11:20




          $begingroup$
          Yes, that is correct.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Jan 18 at 11:20


















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