Show $S^2$ with 2 cells attached is equivalent to a wedge of spheres












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Show that a space obtained from $S^2$ by attaching n 2-cells along any collection of n circles in $S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to the wedge of n+1 spheres.



I'm a little confused here. I'm imagining a sphere, and putting 2 dimensional discs inside of it. Attaching one disc along one circle of $S^2$ and then collapsing that disc to a point would appear to me to create a wedge of two spheres.



However, if I attached 2 discs along 2 different circles of $S^2$ and collapsed each to a point, to me it seems I would have created a wedge of four spheres, one sphere for each division created by the two discs inside the sphere.



What is wrong with my thinking here? Thanks!!










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Consider what happens if the circles are parallel. What, if anything, changes when we move the circles to not be parallel?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 18 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    You can use an inductive argument: attaching $n$ 2-cells to $S^2$ is equivalent to attaching one 2-cell to the space obtained by attaching $(n-1)$ 2-cells to $S^2$. Then if you agree that attaching one 2-cell is equivalent to wedging with a new sphere, the claim follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Provost
    Jan 18 at 16:07












  • $begingroup$
    Specifically, I don't understand why you are imagining four spheres instead of three. This is what I have in mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Provost
    Jan 18 at 16:29
















1












$begingroup$


Show that a space obtained from $S^2$ by attaching n 2-cells along any collection of n circles in $S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to the wedge of n+1 spheres.



I'm a little confused here. I'm imagining a sphere, and putting 2 dimensional discs inside of it. Attaching one disc along one circle of $S^2$ and then collapsing that disc to a point would appear to me to create a wedge of two spheres.



However, if I attached 2 discs along 2 different circles of $S^2$ and collapsed each to a point, to me it seems I would have created a wedge of four spheres, one sphere for each division created by the two discs inside the sphere.



What is wrong with my thinking here? Thanks!!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Consider what happens if the circles are parallel. What, if anything, changes when we move the circles to not be parallel?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 18 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    You can use an inductive argument: attaching $n$ 2-cells to $S^2$ is equivalent to attaching one 2-cell to the space obtained by attaching $(n-1)$ 2-cells to $S^2$. Then if you agree that attaching one 2-cell is equivalent to wedging with a new sphere, the claim follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Provost
    Jan 18 at 16:07












  • $begingroup$
    Specifically, I don't understand why you are imagining four spheres instead of three. This is what I have in mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Provost
    Jan 18 at 16:29














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Show that a space obtained from $S^2$ by attaching n 2-cells along any collection of n circles in $S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to the wedge of n+1 spheres.



I'm a little confused here. I'm imagining a sphere, and putting 2 dimensional discs inside of it. Attaching one disc along one circle of $S^2$ and then collapsing that disc to a point would appear to me to create a wedge of two spheres.



However, if I attached 2 discs along 2 different circles of $S^2$ and collapsed each to a point, to me it seems I would have created a wedge of four spheres, one sphere for each division created by the two discs inside the sphere.



What is wrong with my thinking here? Thanks!!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Show that a space obtained from $S^2$ by attaching n 2-cells along any collection of n circles in $S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to the wedge of n+1 spheres.



I'm a little confused here. I'm imagining a sphere, and putting 2 dimensional discs inside of it. Attaching one disc along one circle of $S^2$ and then collapsing that disc to a point would appear to me to create a wedge of two spheres.



However, if I attached 2 discs along 2 different circles of $S^2$ and collapsed each to a point, to me it seems I would have created a wedge of four spheres, one sphere for each division created by the two discs inside the sphere.



What is wrong with my thinking here? Thanks!!







algebraic-topology






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asked Jan 18 at 15:21







user624065















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Consider what happens if the circles are parallel. What, if anything, changes when we move the circles to not be parallel?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 18 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    You can use an inductive argument: attaching $n$ 2-cells to $S^2$ is equivalent to attaching one 2-cell to the space obtained by attaching $(n-1)$ 2-cells to $S^2$. Then if you agree that attaching one 2-cell is equivalent to wedging with a new sphere, the claim follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Provost
    Jan 18 at 16:07












  • $begingroup$
    Specifically, I don't understand why you are imagining four spheres instead of three. This is what I have in mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Provost
    Jan 18 at 16:29














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Consider what happens if the circles are parallel. What, if anything, changes when we move the circles to not be parallel?
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 18 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    You can use an inductive argument: attaching $n$ 2-cells to $S^2$ is equivalent to attaching one 2-cell to the space obtained by attaching $(n-1)$ 2-cells to $S^2$. Then if you agree that attaching one 2-cell is equivalent to wedging with a new sphere, the claim follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Provost
    Jan 18 at 16:07












  • $begingroup$
    Specifically, I don't understand why you are imagining four spheres instead of three. This is what I have in mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Provost
    Jan 18 at 16:29








1




1




$begingroup$
Consider what happens if the circles are parallel. What, if anything, changes when we move the circles to not be parallel?
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 18 at 15:25




$begingroup$
Consider what happens if the circles are parallel. What, if anything, changes when we move the circles to not be parallel?
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 18 at 15:25












$begingroup$
You can use an inductive argument: attaching $n$ 2-cells to $S^2$ is equivalent to attaching one 2-cell to the space obtained by attaching $(n-1)$ 2-cells to $S^2$. Then if you agree that attaching one 2-cell is equivalent to wedging with a new sphere, the claim follows.
$endgroup$
– Alex Provost
Jan 18 at 16:07






$begingroup$
You can use an inductive argument: attaching $n$ 2-cells to $S^2$ is equivalent to attaching one 2-cell to the space obtained by attaching $(n-1)$ 2-cells to $S^2$. Then if you agree that attaching one 2-cell is equivalent to wedging with a new sphere, the claim follows.
$endgroup$
– Alex Provost
Jan 18 at 16:07














$begingroup$
Specifically, I don't understand why you are imagining four spheres instead of three. This is what I have in mind.
$endgroup$
– Alex Provost
Jan 18 at 16:29




$begingroup$
Specifically, I don't understand why you are imagining four spheres instead of three. This is what I have in mind.
$endgroup$
– Alex Provost
Jan 18 at 16:29










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If you form $Z= S^2 cup_f e^2$ then the attaching map- $f: S^1 to S^2$ is null homotopic, as $S^2$ is simply connected. So $Z simeq S^2 vee S^2 $. The general result you need is that if $Z= B cup_f X$ where $f: A to B$, and the inclusion $i : A to X$ is a closed cofibration, then the homotopy type of $Z$ depends only on the homotopy class of $f$.






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    $begingroup$

    If you form $Z= S^2 cup_f e^2$ then the attaching map- $f: S^1 to S^2$ is null homotopic, as $S^2$ is simply connected. So $Z simeq S^2 vee S^2 $. The general result you need is that if $Z= B cup_f X$ where $f: A to B$, and the inclusion $i : A to X$ is a closed cofibration, then the homotopy type of $Z$ depends only on the homotopy class of $f$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      1












      $begingroup$

      If you form $Z= S^2 cup_f e^2$ then the attaching map- $f: S^1 to S^2$ is null homotopic, as $S^2$ is simply connected. So $Z simeq S^2 vee S^2 $. The general result you need is that if $Z= B cup_f X$ where $f: A to B$, and the inclusion $i : A to X$ is a closed cofibration, then the homotopy type of $Z$ depends only on the homotopy class of $f$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












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        1





        $begingroup$

        If you form $Z= S^2 cup_f e^2$ then the attaching map- $f: S^1 to S^2$ is null homotopic, as $S^2$ is simply connected. So $Z simeq S^2 vee S^2 $. The general result you need is that if $Z= B cup_f X$ where $f: A to B$, and the inclusion $i : A to X$ is a closed cofibration, then the homotopy type of $Z$ depends only on the homotopy class of $f$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        If you form $Z= S^2 cup_f e^2$ then the attaching map- $f: S^1 to S^2$ is null homotopic, as $S^2$ is simply connected. So $Z simeq S^2 vee S^2 $. The general result you need is that if $Z= B cup_f X$ where $f: A to B$, and the inclusion $i : A to X$ is a closed cofibration, then the homotopy type of $Z$ depends only on the homotopy class of $f$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 19 at 16:11

























        answered Jan 19 at 15:40









        Ronnie BrownRonnie Brown

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        12.1k12939






























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