Should one use “tends to” or “equals” when dealing with infinity?












0












$begingroup$


Is this perfectly valid:
$$lim_{xto0}frac{1}{x}=infty tag{1}$$
or should I use:
$$frac{1}{x}toinftyquadtext{as}quad xto0 tag{2}$$
or likewise:
$$lim_{xto0}frac{1}{x}toinfty tag{3}$$
are all valid? I always got taught you should never put infinity in an equation or as an answer, rather you should say "f(x) tends to infinity" because nothing can "equal" infinity, however my textbook is using the first example, likewise with many resources I've looked at online.



Cheers!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Is this perfectly valid:
    $$lim_{xto0}frac{1}{x}=infty tag{1}$$
    or should I use:
    $$frac{1}{x}toinftyquadtext{as}quad xto0 tag{2}$$
    or likewise:
    $$lim_{xto0}frac{1}{x}toinfty tag{3}$$
    are all valid? I always got taught you should never put infinity in an equation or as an answer, rather you should say "f(x) tends to infinity" because nothing can "equal" infinity, however my textbook is using the first example, likewise with many resources I've looked at online.



    Cheers!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Is this perfectly valid:
      $$lim_{xto0}frac{1}{x}=infty tag{1}$$
      or should I use:
      $$frac{1}{x}toinftyquadtext{as}quad xto0 tag{2}$$
      or likewise:
      $$lim_{xto0}frac{1}{x}toinfty tag{3}$$
      are all valid? I always got taught you should never put infinity in an equation or as an answer, rather you should say "f(x) tends to infinity" because nothing can "equal" infinity, however my textbook is using the first example, likewise with many resources I've looked at online.



      Cheers!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Is this perfectly valid:
      $$lim_{xto0}frac{1}{x}=infty tag{1}$$
      or should I use:
      $$frac{1}{x}toinftyquadtext{as}quad xto0 tag{2}$$
      or likewise:
      $$lim_{xto0}frac{1}{x}toinfty tag{3}$$
      are all valid? I always got taught you should never put infinity in an equation or as an answer, rather you should say "f(x) tends to infinity" because nothing can "equal" infinity, however my textbook is using the first example, likewise with many resources I've looked at online.



      Cheers!







      calculus limits notation






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      edited Jan 18 at 15:33









      Blue

      48.6k870156




      48.6k870156










      asked Jan 18 at 15:31









      Adam BromileyAdam Bromiley

      281110




      281110






















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

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          3












          $begingroup$

          The first notation and the second are both common, the third is never used. Yes, we define $lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=infty$ and we can use the $infty$ symbol in equations, appropriately. However, the equations themselves are in fact incorrect. The limits $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}$ does not exist, since if we approach $0$ from the left and the right we get different results: $lim_{xto 0^+}frac{1}{x}=infty$ and $lim_{xto 0^-}frac{1}{x}=-infty$, where the former means approach $0$ from the right and the latter from the left. The limits are different and hence saying $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}=infty$ is incorrect.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Perfect, thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – Adam Bromiley
            Jan 19 at 16:05



















          2












          $begingroup$

          Good question!



          Essentially we have that



          $$frac 1x to infty text { as } xto 0^+$$



          Where $to$ has an English meaning of "tends to"



          And we also have that:



          $$lim_{xto 0^+}{frac 1x}=infty$$



          "The limit as x tends to 0 from the positive side of 1 over x is infinity"



          In short, use "tends to" when not using the limit notation, use equals when you are.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            You were taught wrong. "$lim_{x to 0} f(x) = infty$" has a precise meaning, which is the same as "$f(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$". On the other hand, you should never say $lim_{x to 0} f(x) to infty$.



            Your particular example, though, is wrong. $lim_{x to 0} 1/x$ doesn't exist,
            as it involves both positive and negative values of $x$.
            $lim_{x to 0+} 1/x = +infty$, but $lim_{x to 0-} 1/x = -infty$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$





















              1












              $begingroup$

              The first two are valid and mean the same thing - the third makes very little sense. Don't ever write the third, please.



              Regarding whether nothing can equal infinity: WE have a definition of what $lim_{xto0}1/x=infty $ means - there are no infinities in that definition.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













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                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes








                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                3












                $begingroup$

                The first notation and the second are both common, the third is never used. Yes, we define $lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=infty$ and we can use the $infty$ symbol in equations, appropriately. However, the equations themselves are in fact incorrect. The limits $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}$ does not exist, since if we approach $0$ from the left and the right we get different results: $lim_{xto 0^+}frac{1}{x}=infty$ and $lim_{xto 0^-}frac{1}{x}=-infty$, where the former means approach $0$ from the right and the latter from the left. The limits are different and hence saying $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}=infty$ is incorrect.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$













                • $begingroup$
                  Perfect, thank you!
                  $endgroup$
                  – Adam Bromiley
                  Jan 19 at 16:05
















                3












                $begingroup$

                The first notation and the second are both common, the third is never used. Yes, we define $lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=infty$ and we can use the $infty$ symbol in equations, appropriately. However, the equations themselves are in fact incorrect. The limits $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}$ does not exist, since if we approach $0$ from the left and the right we get different results: $lim_{xto 0^+}frac{1}{x}=infty$ and $lim_{xto 0^-}frac{1}{x}=-infty$, where the former means approach $0$ from the right and the latter from the left. The limits are different and hence saying $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}=infty$ is incorrect.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$













                • $begingroup$
                  Perfect, thank you!
                  $endgroup$
                  – Adam Bromiley
                  Jan 19 at 16:05














                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                The first notation and the second are both common, the third is never used. Yes, we define $lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=infty$ and we can use the $infty$ symbol in equations, appropriately. However, the equations themselves are in fact incorrect. The limits $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}$ does not exist, since if we approach $0$ from the left and the right we get different results: $lim_{xto 0^+}frac{1}{x}=infty$ and $lim_{xto 0^-}frac{1}{x}=-infty$, where the former means approach $0$ from the right and the latter from the left. The limits are different and hence saying $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}=infty$ is incorrect.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The first notation and the second are both common, the third is never used. Yes, we define $lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=infty$ and we can use the $infty$ symbol in equations, appropriately. However, the equations themselves are in fact incorrect. The limits $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}$ does not exist, since if we approach $0$ from the left and the right we get different results: $lim_{xto 0^+}frac{1}{x}=infty$ and $lim_{xto 0^-}frac{1}{x}=-infty$, where the former means approach $0$ from the right and the latter from the left. The limits are different and hence saying $lim_{xto 0}frac{1}{x}=infty$ is incorrect.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 18 at 15:39









                Yuval GatYuval Gat

                572213




                572213












                • $begingroup$
                  Perfect, thank you!
                  $endgroup$
                  – Adam Bromiley
                  Jan 19 at 16:05


















                • $begingroup$
                  Perfect, thank you!
                  $endgroup$
                  – Adam Bromiley
                  Jan 19 at 16:05
















                $begingroup$
                Perfect, thank you!
                $endgroup$
                – Adam Bromiley
                Jan 19 at 16:05




                $begingroup$
                Perfect, thank you!
                $endgroup$
                – Adam Bromiley
                Jan 19 at 16:05











                2












                $begingroup$

                Good question!



                Essentially we have that



                $$frac 1x to infty text { as } xto 0^+$$



                Where $to$ has an English meaning of "tends to"



                And we also have that:



                $$lim_{xto 0^+}{frac 1x}=infty$$



                "The limit as x tends to 0 from the positive side of 1 over x is infinity"



                In short, use "tends to" when not using the limit notation, use equals when you are.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  Good question!



                  Essentially we have that



                  $$frac 1x to infty text { as } xto 0^+$$



                  Where $to$ has an English meaning of "tends to"



                  And we also have that:



                  $$lim_{xto 0^+}{frac 1x}=infty$$



                  "The limit as x tends to 0 from the positive side of 1 over x is infinity"



                  In short, use "tends to" when not using the limit notation, use equals when you are.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    Good question!



                    Essentially we have that



                    $$frac 1x to infty text { as } xto 0^+$$



                    Where $to$ has an English meaning of "tends to"



                    And we also have that:



                    $$lim_{xto 0^+}{frac 1x}=infty$$



                    "The limit as x tends to 0 from the positive side of 1 over x is infinity"



                    In short, use "tends to" when not using the limit notation, use equals when you are.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Good question!



                    Essentially we have that



                    $$frac 1x to infty text { as } xto 0^+$$



                    Where $to$ has an English meaning of "tends to"



                    And we also have that:



                    $$lim_{xto 0^+}{frac 1x}=infty$$



                    "The limit as x tends to 0 from the positive side of 1 over x is infinity"



                    In short, use "tends to" when not using the limit notation, use equals when you are.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 18 at 15:37









                    Rhys HughesRhys Hughes

                    6,9341530




                    6,9341530























                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        You were taught wrong. "$lim_{x to 0} f(x) = infty$" has a precise meaning, which is the same as "$f(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$". On the other hand, you should never say $lim_{x to 0} f(x) to infty$.



                        Your particular example, though, is wrong. $lim_{x to 0} 1/x$ doesn't exist,
                        as it involves both positive and negative values of $x$.
                        $lim_{x to 0+} 1/x = +infty$, but $lim_{x to 0-} 1/x = -infty$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          2












                          $begingroup$

                          You were taught wrong. "$lim_{x to 0} f(x) = infty$" has a precise meaning, which is the same as "$f(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$". On the other hand, you should never say $lim_{x to 0} f(x) to infty$.



                          Your particular example, though, is wrong. $lim_{x to 0} 1/x$ doesn't exist,
                          as it involves both positive and negative values of $x$.
                          $lim_{x to 0+} 1/x = +infty$, but $lim_{x to 0-} 1/x = -infty$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            2












                            2








                            2





                            $begingroup$

                            You were taught wrong. "$lim_{x to 0} f(x) = infty$" has a precise meaning, which is the same as "$f(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$". On the other hand, you should never say $lim_{x to 0} f(x) to infty$.



                            Your particular example, though, is wrong. $lim_{x to 0} 1/x$ doesn't exist,
                            as it involves both positive and negative values of $x$.
                            $lim_{x to 0+} 1/x = +infty$, but $lim_{x to 0-} 1/x = -infty$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            You were taught wrong. "$lim_{x to 0} f(x) = infty$" has a precise meaning, which is the same as "$f(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$". On the other hand, you should never say $lim_{x to 0} f(x) to infty$.



                            Your particular example, though, is wrong. $lim_{x to 0} 1/x$ doesn't exist,
                            as it involves both positive and negative values of $x$.
                            $lim_{x to 0+} 1/x = +infty$, but $lim_{x to 0-} 1/x = -infty$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Jan 18 at 15:37









                            Robert IsraelRobert Israel

                            325k23214468




                            325k23214468























                                1












                                $begingroup$

                                The first two are valid and mean the same thing - the third makes very little sense. Don't ever write the third, please.



                                Regarding whether nothing can equal infinity: WE have a definition of what $lim_{xto0}1/x=infty $ means - there are no infinities in that definition.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$


















                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  The first two are valid and mean the same thing - the third makes very little sense. Don't ever write the third, please.



                                  Regarding whether nothing can equal infinity: WE have a definition of what $lim_{xto0}1/x=infty $ means - there are no infinities in that definition.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$
















                                    1












                                    1








                                    1





                                    $begingroup$

                                    The first two are valid and mean the same thing - the third makes very little sense. Don't ever write the third, please.



                                    Regarding whether nothing can equal infinity: WE have a definition of what $lim_{xto0}1/x=infty $ means - there are no infinities in that definition.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    The first two are valid and mean the same thing - the third makes very little sense. Don't ever write the third, please.



                                    Regarding whether nothing can equal infinity: WE have a definition of what $lim_{xto0}1/x=infty $ means - there are no infinities in that definition.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Jan 18 at 15:34









                                    David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

                                    61k43994




                                    61k43994






























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