A Summation from A Generalized Negative Binomial Distribution
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I am reading Jain and Consul "1971A Generalized Negative Binomial Distribution". The key identity of this generalised negative binomial distribution is (slightly different version):
$$(1-alpha )^{-n}=sum _{x=0}^{infty } frac{n}{n+x beta }frac{Gamma(n+x beta +1)}{Gamma(x+1)Gamma(n+x (beta
-1)+1)}alpha ^x(1-alpha )^{x(beta -1)}, quad 0<alpha<1.$$
My question is that, apart from Lagrange's formula(see paper), is there any other way to show this identity?
Thanks in advance.
summation taylor-expansion negative-binomial
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$begingroup$
I am reading Jain and Consul "1971A Generalized Negative Binomial Distribution". The key identity of this generalised negative binomial distribution is (slightly different version):
$$(1-alpha )^{-n}=sum _{x=0}^{infty } frac{n}{n+x beta }frac{Gamma(n+x beta +1)}{Gamma(x+1)Gamma(n+x (beta
-1)+1)}alpha ^x(1-alpha )^{x(beta -1)}, quad 0<alpha<1.$$
My question is that, apart from Lagrange's formula(see paper), is there any other way to show this identity?
Thanks in advance.
summation taylor-expansion negative-binomial
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am reading Jain and Consul "1971A Generalized Negative Binomial Distribution". The key identity of this generalised negative binomial distribution is (slightly different version):
$$(1-alpha )^{-n}=sum _{x=0}^{infty } frac{n}{n+x beta }frac{Gamma(n+x beta +1)}{Gamma(x+1)Gamma(n+x (beta
-1)+1)}alpha ^x(1-alpha )^{x(beta -1)}, quad 0<alpha<1.$$
My question is that, apart from Lagrange's formula(see paper), is there any other way to show this identity?
Thanks in advance.
summation taylor-expansion negative-binomial
$endgroup$
I am reading Jain and Consul "1971A Generalized Negative Binomial Distribution". The key identity of this generalised negative binomial distribution is (slightly different version):
$$(1-alpha )^{-n}=sum _{x=0}^{infty } frac{n}{n+x beta }frac{Gamma(n+x beta +1)}{Gamma(x+1)Gamma(n+x (beta
-1)+1)}alpha ^x(1-alpha )^{x(beta -1)}, quad 0<alpha<1.$$
My question is that, apart from Lagrange's formula(see paper), is there any other way to show this identity?
Thanks in advance.
summation taylor-expansion negative-binomial
summation taylor-expansion negative-binomial
edited Jan 31 at 20:50
Renato Faraone
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2,36611727
asked Jan 26 at 5:41
gouwangzhangdonggouwangzhangdong
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888
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