Why do we take only intervals for solution of differential equation [closed]












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Suppose the solution to my equation blows up at 0 and is well defined everywhere else. Then why can't we just take R-{0} as the domain of the function? Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?



Edit: sorry, nonzero function which is not constant.
Suppose the solution to a differential equation is 1/x then why do we have to take an interval and not R-{0}










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closed as off-topic by Dylan, RRL, José Carlos Santos, mrtaurho, Ali Caglayan Jan 28 at 13:20


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dylan, RRL, José Carlos Santos, Ali Caglayan

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?" $f(x)=3$?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Jan 28 at 6:55










  • $begingroup$
    Intervals of solution are based on the singular points of the differential equation, not the solution itself. Without specific examples I can't say more.
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Jan 28 at 7:04










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur I edited my question. Can you give one now? Please?
    $endgroup$
    – Korra
    Jan 28 at 7:41
















2












$begingroup$


Suppose the solution to my equation blows up at 0 and is well defined everywhere else. Then why can't we just take R-{0} as the domain of the function? Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?



Edit: sorry, nonzero function which is not constant.
Suppose the solution to a differential equation is 1/x then why do we have to take an interval and not R-{0}










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Dylan, RRL, José Carlos Santos, mrtaurho, Ali Caglayan Jan 28 at 13:20


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dylan, RRL, José Carlos Santos, Ali Caglayan

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?" $f(x)=3$?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Jan 28 at 6:55










  • $begingroup$
    Intervals of solution are based on the singular points of the differential equation, not the solution itself. Without specific examples I can't say more.
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Jan 28 at 7:04










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur I edited my question. Can you give one now? Please?
    $endgroup$
    – Korra
    Jan 28 at 7:41














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Suppose the solution to my equation blows up at 0 and is well defined everywhere else. Then why can't we just take R-{0} as the domain of the function? Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?



Edit: sorry, nonzero function which is not constant.
Suppose the solution to a differential equation is 1/x then why do we have to take an interval and not R-{0}










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose the solution to my equation blows up at 0 and is well defined everywhere else. Then why can't we just take R-{0} as the domain of the function? Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?



Edit: sorry, nonzero function which is not constant.
Suppose the solution to a differential equation is 1/x then why do we have to take an interval and not R-{0}







integration ordinary-differential-equations interval-arithmetic






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 28 at 7:36







Korra

















asked Jan 28 at 6:10









KorraKorra

185




185




closed as off-topic by Dylan, RRL, José Carlos Santos, mrtaurho, Ali Caglayan Jan 28 at 13:20


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dylan, RRL, José Carlos Santos, Ali Caglayan

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by Dylan, RRL, José Carlos Santos, mrtaurho, Ali Caglayan Jan 28 at 13:20


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dylan, RRL, José Carlos Santos, Ali Caglayan

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?" $f(x)=3$?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Jan 28 at 6:55










  • $begingroup$
    Intervals of solution are based on the singular points of the differential equation, not the solution itself. Without specific examples I can't say more.
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Jan 28 at 7:04










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur I edited my question. Can you give one now? Please?
    $endgroup$
    – Korra
    Jan 28 at 7:41














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?" $f(x)=3$?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Jan 28 at 6:55










  • $begingroup$
    Intervals of solution are based on the singular points of the differential equation, not the solution itself. Without specific examples I can't say more.
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Jan 28 at 7:04










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur I edited my question. Can you give one now? Please?
    $endgroup$
    – Korra
    Jan 28 at 7:41








1




1




$begingroup$
"Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?" $f(x)=3$?
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Jan 28 at 6:55




$begingroup$
"Also can someone give an example of a nonzero function whose first order derivative is zero?" $f(x)=3$?
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Jan 28 at 6:55












$begingroup$
Intervals of solution are based on the singular points of the differential equation, not the solution itself. Without specific examples I can't say more.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 28 at 7:04




$begingroup$
Intervals of solution are based on the singular points of the differential equation, not the solution itself. Without specific examples I can't say more.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 28 at 7:04












$begingroup$
@Arthur I edited my question. Can you give one now? Please?
$endgroup$
– Korra
Jan 28 at 7:41




$begingroup$
@Arthur I edited my question. Can you give one now? Please?
$endgroup$
– Korra
Jan 28 at 7:41










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Suppose your equation is
$$
y'(x)=-frac 1{x^2}\
y(1)=1
$$

just to keep it simple. Then clearly, for positive $x$, the solution is $frac1x$. However, the equation itself says nothing about what the value of the function is for negative numbers. Maybe for negative $x$ we have $y=frac1x +1000$? There is just no way to use the equation to extend a solution uniquely past a point of singularity like that.



As for a function with a zero derivative, such a function must be constant on any connected component of its domain. Maybe that can give you some hint on how to find one.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yep, exactly. This is what I was trying to get at, too.
    $endgroup$
    – goblin
    Jan 28 at 8:22










  • $begingroup$
    So basically all I have to do is change the interval from (a,b) to a one which is disconnected? @Arthur
    $endgroup$
    – Korra
    Jan 28 at 11:53












  • $begingroup$
    @Korra If you want a non-constant function with zero derivative, yes. You need a disconnected domain.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Jan 28 at 15:22





















3












$begingroup$

In full generality, you can look at solutions on any open set $U$, and the theory will work just fine. In particular: given a differential equation $E$, you get a corresponding sheaf $tilde{E}$ by defining $tilde{E}(U)$ to be the set of all solutions to the equation on the open set $U$.



However, the benefit of restricting attention to situations where $U$ is connected is that it ensures uniqueness of solutions to IVPs.



For example, if we know that $frac{dy}{dx} = 1/x$ and that $y(x := 1) = 0$, then we can conclude that $y = mathrm{log}_e(x)$, but only if we're implicitly working on an open set $U$ that contains $1$, does not contain $0$, and happens to be connected. Note that $(0,infty)$ is the largest such set. If we included some extra points in our set, say $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, then our IVP would have more than one solution. In particular, for all $A in mathbb{R}$, the function
$$y = begin{cases} mathrm{log}_e(-x)+A, x < 0 \ mathrm{log}_w(x), x > 0 end{cases}$$



solves the aforementioned IVP on the domain $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty).$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    4












    $begingroup$

    Suppose your equation is
    $$
    y'(x)=-frac 1{x^2}\
    y(1)=1
    $$

    just to keep it simple. Then clearly, for positive $x$, the solution is $frac1x$. However, the equation itself says nothing about what the value of the function is for negative numbers. Maybe for negative $x$ we have $y=frac1x +1000$? There is just no way to use the equation to extend a solution uniquely past a point of singularity like that.



    As for a function with a zero derivative, such a function must be constant on any connected component of its domain. Maybe that can give you some hint on how to find one.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Yep, exactly. This is what I was trying to get at, too.
      $endgroup$
      – goblin
      Jan 28 at 8:22










    • $begingroup$
      So basically all I have to do is change the interval from (a,b) to a one which is disconnected? @Arthur
      $endgroup$
      – Korra
      Jan 28 at 11:53












    • $begingroup$
      @Korra If you want a non-constant function with zero derivative, yes. You need a disconnected domain.
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      Jan 28 at 15:22


















    4












    $begingroup$

    Suppose your equation is
    $$
    y'(x)=-frac 1{x^2}\
    y(1)=1
    $$

    just to keep it simple. Then clearly, for positive $x$, the solution is $frac1x$. However, the equation itself says nothing about what the value of the function is for negative numbers. Maybe for negative $x$ we have $y=frac1x +1000$? There is just no way to use the equation to extend a solution uniquely past a point of singularity like that.



    As for a function with a zero derivative, such a function must be constant on any connected component of its domain. Maybe that can give you some hint on how to find one.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Yep, exactly. This is what I was trying to get at, too.
      $endgroup$
      – goblin
      Jan 28 at 8:22










    • $begingroup$
      So basically all I have to do is change the interval from (a,b) to a one which is disconnected? @Arthur
      $endgroup$
      – Korra
      Jan 28 at 11:53












    • $begingroup$
      @Korra If you want a non-constant function with zero derivative, yes. You need a disconnected domain.
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      Jan 28 at 15:22
















    4












    4








    4





    $begingroup$

    Suppose your equation is
    $$
    y'(x)=-frac 1{x^2}\
    y(1)=1
    $$

    just to keep it simple. Then clearly, for positive $x$, the solution is $frac1x$. However, the equation itself says nothing about what the value of the function is for negative numbers. Maybe for negative $x$ we have $y=frac1x +1000$? There is just no way to use the equation to extend a solution uniquely past a point of singularity like that.



    As for a function with a zero derivative, such a function must be constant on any connected component of its domain. Maybe that can give you some hint on how to find one.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Suppose your equation is
    $$
    y'(x)=-frac 1{x^2}\
    y(1)=1
    $$

    just to keep it simple. Then clearly, for positive $x$, the solution is $frac1x$. However, the equation itself says nothing about what the value of the function is for negative numbers. Maybe for negative $x$ we have $y=frac1x +1000$? There is just no way to use the equation to extend a solution uniquely past a point of singularity like that.



    As for a function with a zero derivative, such a function must be constant on any connected component of its domain. Maybe that can give you some hint on how to find one.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 28 at 7:58









    ArthurArthur

    120k7120204




    120k7120204












    • $begingroup$
      Yep, exactly. This is what I was trying to get at, too.
      $endgroup$
      – goblin
      Jan 28 at 8:22










    • $begingroup$
      So basically all I have to do is change the interval from (a,b) to a one which is disconnected? @Arthur
      $endgroup$
      – Korra
      Jan 28 at 11:53












    • $begingroup$
      @Korra If you want a non-constant function with zero derivative, yes. You need a disconnected domain.
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      Jan 28 at 15:22




















    • $begingroup$
      Yep, exactly. This is what I was trying to get at, too.
      $endgroup$
      – goblin
      Jan 28 at 8:22










    • $begingroup$
      So basically all I have to do is change the interval from (a,b) to a one which is disconnected? @Arthur
      $endgroup$
      – Korra
      Jan 28 at 11:53












    • $begingroup$
      @Korra If you want a non-constant function with zero derivative, yes. You need a disconnected domain.
      $endgroup$
      – Arthur
      Jan 28 at 15:22


















    $begingroup$
    Yep, exactly. This is what I was trying to get at, too.
    $endgroup$
    – goblin
    Jan 28 at 8:22




    $begingroup$
    Yep, exactly. This is what I was trying to get at, too.
    $endgroup$
    – goblin
    Jan 28 at 8:22












    $begingroup$
    So basically all I have to do is change the interval from (a,b) to a one which is disconnected? @Arthur
    $endgroup$
    – Korra
    Jan 28 at 11:53






    $begingroup$
    So basically all I have to do is change the interval from (a,b) to a one which is disconnected? @Arthur
    $endgroup$
    – Korra
    Jan 28 at 11:53














    $begingroup$
    @Korra If you want a non-constant function with zero derivative, yes. You need a disconnected domain.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Jan 28 at 15:22






    $begingroup$
    @Korra If you want a non-constant function with zero derivative, yes. You need a disconnected domain.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Jan 28 at 15:22













    3












    $begingroup$

    In full generality, you can look at solutions on any open set $U$, and the theory will work just fine. In particular: given a differential equation $E$, you get a corresponding sheaf $tilde{E}$ by defining $tilde{E}(U)$ to be the set of all solutions to the equation on the open set $U$.



    However, the benefit of restricting attention to situations where $U$ is connected is that it ensures uniqueness of solutions to IVPs.



    For example, if we know that $frac{dy}{dx} = 1/x$ and that $y(x := 1) = 0$, then we can conclude that $y = mathrm{log}_e(x)$, but only if we're implicitly working on an open set $U$ that contains $1$, does not contain $0$, and happens to be connected. Note that $(0,infty)$ is the largest such set. If we included some extra points in our set, say $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, then our IVP would have more than one solution. In particular, for all $A in mathbb{R}$, the function
    $$y = begin{cases} mathrm{log}_e(-x)+A, x < 0 \ mathrm{log}_w(x), x > 0 end{cases}$$



    solves the aforementioned IVP on the domain $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty).$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      3












      $begingroup$

      In full generality, you can look at solutions on any open set $U$, and the theory will work just fine. In particular: given a differential equation $E$, you get a corresponding sheaf $tilde{E}$ by defining $tilde{E}(U)$ to be the set of all solutions to the equation on the open set $U$.



      However, the benefit of restricting attention to situations where $U$ is connected is that it ensures uniqueness of solutions to IVPs.



      For example, if we know that $frac{dy}{dx} = 1/x$ and that $y(x := 1) = 0$, then we can conclude that $y = mathrm{log}_e(x)$, but only if we're implicitly working on an open set $U$ that contains $1$, does not contain $0$, and happens to be connected. Note that $(0,infty)$ is the largest such set. If we included some extra points in our set, say $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, then our IVP would have more than one solution. In particular, for all $A in mathbb{R}$, the function
      $$y = begin{cases} mathrm{log}_e(-x)+A, x < 0 \ mathrm{log}_w(x), x > 0 end{cases}$$



      solves the aforementioned IVP on the domain $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty).$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        In full generality, you can look at solutions on any open set $U$, and the theory will work just fine. In particular: given a differential equation $E$, you get a corresponding sheaf $tilde{E}$ by defining $tilde{E}(U)$ to be the set of all solutions to the equation on the open set $U$.



        However, the benefit of restricting attention to situations where $U$ is connected is that it ensures uniqueness of solutions to IVPs.



        For example, if we know that $frac{dy}{dx} = 1/x$ and that $y(x := 1) = 0$, then we can conclude that $y = mathrm{log}_e(x)$, but only if we're implicitly working on an open set $U$ that contains $1$, does not contain $0$, and happens to be connected. Note that $(0,infty)$ is the largest such set. If we included some extra points in our set, say $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, then our IVP would have more than one solution. In particular, for all $A in mathbb{R}$, the function
        $$y = begin{cases} mathrm{log}_e(-x)+A, x < 0 \ mathrm{log}_w(x), x > 0 end{cases}$$



        solves the aforementioned IVP on the domain $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty).$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        In full generality, you can look at solutions on any open set $U$, and the theory will work just fine. In particular: given a differential equation $E$, you get a corresponding sheaf $tilde{E}$ by defining $tilde{E}(U)$ to be the set of all solutions to the equation on the open set $U$.



        However, the benefit of restricting attention to situations where $U$ is connected is that it ensures uniqueness of solutions to IVPs.



        For example, if we know that $frac{dy}{dx} = 1/x$ and that $y(x := 1) = 0$, then we can conclude that $y = mathrm{log}_e(x)$, but only if we're implicitly working on an open set $U$ that contains $1$, does not contain $0$, and happens to be connected. Note that $(0,infty)$ is the largest such set. If we included some extra points in our set, say $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, then our IVP would have more than one solution. In particular, for all $A in mathbb{R}$, the function
        $$y = begin{cases} mathrm{log}_e(-x)+A, x < 0 \ mathrm{log}_w(x), x > 0 end{cases}$$



        solves the aforementioned IVP on the domain $U = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty).$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 28 at 8:21

























        answered Jan 28 at 7:54









        goblingoblin

        37.1k1159193




        37.1k1159193















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