Discrete mathematics solving recurrence relation with param












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$begingroup$


I was given this equation to solve and I'm without any idea how to work the parameter which is given as p in the equation and therefore I can't figure out what the correct solution is. Any help would be very much appreciated.



$$a_{n+2}=pa_{n+1}+(1-p)a_n$$
where $pin(0,1)setminus{1/2}$ is a given parameter.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $p$ were a given number, say $0.75$, what would you do to solve the equation then? Can you then see how you might generalise to an arbitrary $p$?
    $endgroup$
    – postmortes
    Jan 16 at 10:24










  • $begingroup$
    @postmortes as the p is there it's very much confusing for me as I've never came across similar equations. I really have 0 ideas on how to solve this.
    $endgroup$
    – lostandconfused
    Jan 16 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    So I probably figured out the general solution as $$a_n=C_1 + C_2 (p - 1)^n$$
    $endgroup$
    – lostandconfused
    Jan 16 at 11:25










  • $begingroup$
    You should write your own answer to your question then, so people can see how you got there :)
    $endgroup$
    – postmortes
    Jan 16 at 11:26
















0












$begingroup$


I was given this equation to solve and I'm without any idea how to work the parameter which is given as p in the equation and therefore I can't figure out what the correct solution is. Any help would be very much appreciated.



$$a_{n+2}=pa_{n+1}+(1-p)a_n$$
where $pin(0,1)setminus{1/2}$ is a given parameter.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $p$ were a given number, say $0.75$, what would you do to solve the equation then? Can you then see how you might generalise to an arbitrary $p$?
    $endgroup$
    – postmortes
    Jan 16 at 10:24










  • $begingroup$
    @postmortes as the p is there it's very much confusing for me as I've never came across similar equations. I really have 0 ideas on how to solve this.
    $endgroup$
    – lostandconfused
    Jan 16 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    So I probably figured out the general solution as $$a_n=C_1 + C_2 (p - 1)^n$$
    $endgroup$
    – lostandconfused
    Jan 16 at 11:25










  • $begingroup$
    You should write your own answer to your question then, so people can see how you got there :)
    $endgroup$
    – postmortes
    Jan 16 at 11:26














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I was given this equation to solve and I'm without any idea how to work the parameter which is given as p in the equation and therefore I can't figure out what the correct solution is. Any help would be very much appreciated.



$$a_{n+2}=pa_{n+1}+(1-p)a_n$$
where $pin(0,1)setminus{1/2}$ is a given parameter.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I was given this equation to solve and I'm without any idea how to work the parameter which is given as p in the equation and therefore I can't figure out what the correct solution is. Any help would be very much appreciated.



$$a_{n+2}=pa_{n+1}+(1-p)a_n$$
where $pin(0,1)setminus{1/2}$ is a given parameter.







discrete-mathematics recurrence-relations






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 16 at 10:18









lostandconfusedlostandconfused

1




1












  • $begingroup$
    If $p$ were a given number, say $0.75$, what would you do to solve the equation then? Can you then see how you might generalise to an arbitrary $p$?
    $endgroup$
    – postmortes
    Jan 16 at 10:24










  • $begingroup$
    @postmortes as the p is there it's very much confusing for me as I've never came across similar equations. I really have 0 ideas on how to solve this.
    $endgroup$
    – lostandconfused
    Jan 16 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    So I probably figured out the general solution as $$a_n=C_1 + C_2 (p - 1)^n$$
    $endgroup$
    – lostandconfused
    Jan 16 at 11:25










  • $begingroup$
    You should write your own answer to your question then, so people can see how you got there :)
    $endgroup$
    – postmortes
    Jan 16 at 11:26


















  • $begingroup$
    If $p$ were a given number, say $0.75$, what would you do to solve the equation then? Can you then see how you might generalise to an arbitrary $p$?
    $endgroup$
    – postmortes
    Jan 16 at 10:24










  • $begingroup$
    @postmortes as the p is there it's very much confusing for me as I've never came across similar equations. I really have 0 ideas on how to solve this.
    $endgroup$
    – lostandconfused
    Jan 16 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    So I probably figured out the general solution as $$a_n=C_1 + C_2 (p - 1)^n$$
    $endgroup$
    – lostandconfused
    Jan 16 at 11:25










  • $begingroup$
    You should write your own answer to your question then, so people can see how you got there :)
    $endgroup$
    – postmortes
    Jan 16 at 11:26
















$begingroup$
If $p$ were a given number, say $0.75$, what would you do to solve the equation then? Can you then see how you might generalise to an arbitrary $p$?
$endgroup$
– postmortes
Jan 16 at 10:24




$begingroup$
If $p$ were a given number, say $0.75$, what would you do to solve the equation then? Can you then see how you might generalise to an arbitrary $p$?
$endgroup$
– postmortes
Jan 16 at 10:24












$begingroup$
@postmortes as the p is there it's very much confusing for me as I've never came across similar equations. I really have 0 ideas on how to solve this.
$endgroup$
– lostandconfused
Jan 16 at 10:52




$begingroup$
@postmortes as the p is there it's very much confusing for me as I've never came across similar equations. I really have 0 ideas on how to solve this.
$endgroup$
– lostandconfused
Jan 16 at 10:52












$begingroup$
So I probably figured out the general solution as $$a_n=C_1 + C_2 (p - 1)^n$$
$endgroup$
– lostandconfused
Jan 16 at 11:25




$begingroup$
So I probably figured out the general solution as $$a_n=C_1 + C_2 (p - 1)^n$$
$endgroup$
– lostandconfused
Jan 16 at 11:25












$begingroup$
You should write your own answer to your question then, so people can see how you got there :)
$endgroup$
– postmortes
Jan 16 at 11:26




$begingroup$
You should write your own answer to your question then, so people can see how you got there :)
$endgroup$
– postmortes
Jan 16 at 11:26










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