Lebesgue measure of a straight line in $mathbb{R}^2$ is zero












2












$begingroup$


I'm trying to prove that the Lebesgue measure of a straight line in $mathbb{R}^2$ is zero. I've found certain posts here on Stackexchange concerning this, but I have a slightly different solution which I would like to discuss.



Let $L subset mathbb{R}^2$ be a straight line, and let $(p_n, q_n)_{n=1}^infty$ be an enumeration of the countable set $L cap mathbb{Q}^2$. Fix $epsilon > 0$ and define
$$ A_n = left{ (x,y)in mathbb{R}^2 ,mid, -frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} leq x-p_n < frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}}, ;
-frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} leq y-q_n < frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} right}. $$

Since $L cap mathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$, it follows that
$$ L subset bigcup_{n=1}^infty A_n, $$
and so
$$ lambda(L) leq sum_{n=1}^infty lambda(A_n) = sum_{n=1}^infty text{vol}(A_n) = sum_{n=1}^infty epsilon/2^n = epsilon. $$
But $epsilon$ was arbitrary, so $lambda(L) = 0$.
Is this argument fine?










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't see why $Lsubseteqbigcup A_n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Feb 2 at 18:36








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Why is $Lcapmathbb Q^2$ non-empty?
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    Feb 2 at 18:36






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Let $L$ be all $(x,y)$ such that $y=pi+sqrt 2 x$, for example. If $x$ is rational, $y$ is irrational.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    Feb 2 at 18:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    However the implication $Lcapmathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$ $Rightarrow$ $Lsubset cup A_n$ is a bit unclear to me
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Feb 2 at 18:53








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MisterRiemann sorry I made a mistake, only diffeomorphisms preserve measure zero sets.
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Feb 2 at 19:00
















2












$begingroup$


I'm trying to prove that the Lebesgue measure of a straight line in $mathbb{R}^2$ is zero. I've found certain posts here on Stackexchange concerning this, but I have a slightly different solution which I would like to discuss.



Let $L subset mathbb{R}^2$ be a straight line, and let $(p_n, q_n)_{n=1}^infty$ be an enumeration of the countable set $L cap mathbb{Q}^2$. Fix $epsilon > 0$ and define
$$ A_n = left{ (x,y)in mathbb{R}^2 ,mid, -frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} leq x-p_n < frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}}, ;
-frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} leq y-q_n < frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} right}. $$

Since $L cap mathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$, it follows that
$$ L subset bigcup_{n=1}^infty A_n, $$
and so
$$ lambda(L) leq sum_{n=1}^infty lambda(A_n) = sum_{n=1}^infty text{vol}(A_n) = sum_{n=1}^infty epsilon/2^n = epsilon. $$
But $epsilon$ was arbitrary, so $lambda(L) = 0$.
Is this argument fine?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't see why $Lsubseteqbigcup A_n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Feb 2 at 18:36








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Why is $Lcapmathbb Q^2$ non-empty?
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    Feb 2 at 18:36






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Let $L$ be all $(x,y)$ such that $y=pi+sqrt 2 x$, for example. If $x$ is rational, $y$ is irrational.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    Feb 2 at 18:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    However the implication $Lcapmathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$ $Rightarrow$ $Lsubset cup A_n$ is a bit unclear to me
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Feb 2 at 18:53








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MisterRiemann sorry I made a mistake, only diffeomorphisms preserve measure zero sets.
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Feb 2 at 19:00














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


I'm trying to prove that the Lebesgue measure of a straight line in $mathbb{R}^2$ is zero. I've found certain posts here on Stackexchange concerning this, but I have a slightly different solution which I would like to discuss.



Let $L subset mathbb{R}^2$ be a straight line, and let $(p_n, q_n)_{n=1}^infty$ be an enumeration of the countable set $L cap mathbb{Q}^2$. Fix $epsilon > 0$ and define
$$ A_n = left{ (x,y)in mathbb{R}^2 ,mid, -frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} leq x-p_n < frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}}, ;
-frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} leq y-q_n < frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} right}. $$

Since $L cap mathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$, it follows that
$$ L subset bigcup_{n=1}^infty A_n, $$
and so
$$ lambda(L) leq sum_{n=1}^infty lambda(A_n) = sum_{n=1}^infty text{vol}(A_n) = sum_{n=1}^infty epsilon/2^n = epsilon. $$
But $epsilon$ was arbitrary, so $lambda(L) = 0$.
Is this argument fine?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm trying to prove that the Lebesgue measure of a straight line in $mathbb{R}^2$ is zero. I've found certain posts here on Stackexchange concerning this, but I have a slightly different solution which I would like to discuss.



Let $L subset mathbb{R}^2$ be a straight line, and let $(p_n, q_n)_{n=1}^infty$ be an enumeration of the countable set $L cap mathbb{Q}^2$. Fix $epsilon > 0$ and define
$$ A_n = left{ (x,y)in mathbb{R}^2 ,mid, -frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} leq x-p_n < frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}}, ;
-frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} leq y-q_n < frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2sqrt{2^n}} right}. $$

Since $L cap mathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$, it follows that
$$ L subset bigcup_{n=1}^infty A_n, $$
and so
$$ lambda(L) leq sum_{n=1}^infty lambda(A_n) = sum_{n=1}^infty text{vol}(A_n) = sum_{n=1}^infty epsilon/2^n = epsilon. $$
But $epsilon$ was arbitrary, so $lambda(L) = 0$.
Is this argument fine?







measure-theory lebesgue-measure






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Feb 2 at 18:34









MisterRiemannMisterRiemann

5,8951625




5,8951625








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't see why $Lsubseteqbigcup A_n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Feb 2 at 18:36








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Why is $Lcapmathbb Q^2$ non-empty?
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    Feb 2 at 18:36






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Let $L$ be all $(x,y)$ such that $y=pi+sqrt 2 x$, for example. If $x$ is rational, $y$ is irrational.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    Feb 2 at 18:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    However the implication $Lcapmathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$ $Rightarrow$ $Lsubset cup A_n$ is a bit unclear to me
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Feb 2 at 18:53








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MisterRiemann sorry I made a mistake, only diffeomorphisms preserve measure zero sets.
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Feb 2 at 19:00














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't see why $Lsubseteqbigcup A_n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Feb 2 at 18:36








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Why is $Lcapmathbb Q^2$ non-empty?
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    Feb 2 at 18:36






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Let $L$ be all $(x,y)$ such that $y=pi+sqrt 2 x$, for example. If $x$ is rational, $y$ is irrational.
    $endgroup$
    – kimchi lover
    Feb 2 at 18:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    However the implication $Lcapmathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$ $Rightarrow$ $Lsubset cup A_n$ is a bit unclear to me
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Feb 2 at 18:53








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @MisterRiemann sorry I made a mistake, only diffeomorphisms preserve measure zero sets.
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Feb 2 at 19:00








1




1




$begingroup$
I don't see why $Lsubseteqbigcup A_n$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Feb 2 at 18:36






$begingroup$
I don't see why $Lsubseteqbigcup A_n$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Feb 2 at 18:36






1




1




$begingroup$
Why is $Lcapmathbb Q^2$ non-empty?
$endgroup$
– kimchi lover
Feb 2 at 18:36




$begingroup$
Why is $Lcapmathbb Q^2$ non-empty?
$endgroup$
– kimchi lover
Feb 2 at 18:36




2




2




$begingroup$
Let $L$ be all $(x,y)$ such that $y=pi+sqrt 2 x$, for example. If $x$ is rational, $y$ is irrational.
$endgroup$
– kimchi lover
Feb 2 at 18:46




$begingroup$
Let $L$ be all $(x,y)$ such that $y=pi+sqrt 2 x$, for example. If $x$ is rational, $y$ is irrational.
$endgroup$
– kimchi lover
Feb 2 at 18:46




1




1




$begingroup$
However the implication $Lcapmathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$ $Rightarrow$ $Lsubset cup A_n$ is a bit unclear to me
$endgroup$
– Nick
Feb 2 at 18:53






$begingroup$
However the implication $Lcapmathbb{Q}^2$ is dense in $L$ $Rightarrow$ $Lsubset cup A_n$ is a bit unclear to me
$endgroup$
– Nick
Feb 2 at 18:53






1




1




$begingroup$
@MisterRiemann sorry I made a mistake, only diffeomorphisms preserve measure zero sets.
$endgroup$
– Nick
Feb 2 at 19:00




$begingroup$
@MisterRiemann sorry I made a mistake, only diffeomorphisms preserve measure zero sets.
$endgroup$
– Nick
Feb 2 at 19:00










1 Answer
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2












$begingroup$

The outline and overall plan of your argument are fine: cover $L$ with countably many sets of small total area, and so on.



But your execution is too complicated and (as the comments indicate) has technical flaws.



My recommendation would be: come up with a proof that the $x$-axis has measure $0$, and then shift and rotate your construction to take care of arbitrary $L$.



Exactly how you do this might depend on what kinds of sets you know how to measure, and what you already know about 2 dimensional measure. You might for instance cover $L$ with disks, the $n$th disk with radius $epsilon/n$ so the sum of their diameters is big enough to cover all of $L$, but yet with finite small total area.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a thorough answer
    $endgroup$
    – MisterRiemann
    Feb 2 at 19:02












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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

The outline and overall plan of your argument are fine: cover $L$ with countably many sets of small total area, and so on.



But your execution is too complicated and (as the comments indicate) has technical flaws.



My recommendation would be: come up with a proof that the $x$-axis has measure $0$, and then shift and rotate your construction to take care of arbitrary $L$.



Exactly how you do this might depend on what kinds of sets you know how to measure, and what you already know about 2 dimensional measure. You might for instance cover $L$ with disks, the $n$th disk with radius $epsilon/n$ so the sum of their diameters is big enough to cover all of $L$, but yet with finite small total area.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a thorough answer
    $endgroup$
    – MisterRiemann
    Feb 2 at 19:02
















2












$begingroup$

The outline and overall plan of your argument are fine: cover $L$ with countably many sets of small total area, and so on.



But your execution is too complicated and (as the comments indicate) has technical flaws.



My recommendation would be: come up with a proof that the $x$-axis has measure $0$, and then shift and rotate your construction to take care of arbitrary $L$.



Exactly how you do this might depend on what kinds of sets you know how to measure, and what you already know about 2 dimensional measure. You might for instance cover $L$ with disks, the $n$th disk with radius $epsilon/n$ so the sum of their diameters is big enough to cover all of $L$, but yet with finite small total area.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a thorough answer
    $endgroup$
    – MisterRiemann
    Feb 2 at 19:02














2












2








2





$begingroup$

The outline and overall plan of your argument are fine: cover $L$ with countably many sets of small total area, and so on.



But your execution is too complicated and (as the comments indicate) has technical flaws.



My recommendation would be: come up with a proof that the $x$-axis has measure $0$, and then shift and rotate your construction to take care of arbitrary $L$.



Exactly how you do this might depend on what kinds of sets you know how to measure, and what you already know about 2 dimensional measure. You might for instance cover $L$ with disks, the $n$th disk with radius $epsilon/n$ so the sum of their diameters is big enough to cover all of $L$, but yet with finite small total area.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



The outline and overall plan of your argument are fine: cover $L$ with countably many sets of small total area, and so on.



But your execution is too complicated and (as the comments indicate) has technical flaws.



My recommendation would be: come up with a proof that the $x$-axis has measure $0$, and then shift and rotate your construction to take care of arbitrary $L$.



Exactly how you do this might depend on what kinds of sets you know how to measure, and what you already know about 2 dimensional measure. You might for instance cover $L$ with disks, the $n$th disk with radius $epsilon/n$ so the sum of their diameters is big enough to cover all of $L$, but yet with finite small total area.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Feb 2 at 20:23

























answered Feb 2 at 18:53









kimchi loverkimchi lover

11.8k31229




11.8k31229












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a thorough answer
    $endgroup$
    – MisterRiemann
    Feb 2 at 19:02


















  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for a thorough answer
    $endgroup$
    – MisterRiemann
    Feb 2 at 19:02
















$begingroup$
Thanks for a thorough answer
$endgroup$
– MisterRiemann
Feb 2 at 19:02




$begingroup$
Thanks for a thorough answer
$endgroup$
– MisterRiemann
Feb 2 at 19:02


















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