Prove that $lim_{nto infty} a_n =0$
$begingroup$
Let $(a_n) _{nge 1}$ be a sequence of real numbers so that $lim_{ntoinfty} (a_n^2-a_{n-1}a_{n+1})=0$ and $lim_{ntoinfty} (a_{n+1}+a_{n-1})=0$. Prove that $lim_{nto infty} a_n =0$.
I observed that $a_n$ must be bounded because otherwise the second relation doesn't hold, but I can't see how to continue.
real-analysis sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(a_n) _{nge 1}$ be a sequence of real numbers so that $lim_{ntoinfty} (a_n^2-a_{n-1}a_{n+1})=0$ and $lim_{ntoinfty} (a_{n+1}+a_{n-1})=0$. Prove that $lim_{nto infty} a_n =0$.
I observed that $a_n$ must be bounded because otherwise the second relation doesn't hold, but I can't see how to continue.
real-analysis sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(a_n) _{nge 1}$ be a sequence of real numbers so that $lim_{ntoinfty} (a_n^2-a_{n-1}a_{n+1})=0$ and $lim_{ntoinfty} (a_{n+1}+a_{n-1})=0$. Prove that $lim_{nto infty} a_n =0$.
I observed that $a_n$ must be bounded because otherwise the second relation doesn't hold, but I can't see how to continue.
real-analysis sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
Let $(a_n) _{nge 1}$ be a sequence of real numbers so that $lim_{ntoinfty} (a_n^2-a_{n-1}a_{n+1})=0$ and $lim_{ntoinfty} (a_{n+1}+a_{n-1})=0$. Prove that $lim_{nto infty} a_n =0$.
I observed that $a_n$ must be bounded because otherwise the second relation doesn't hold, but I can't see how to continue.
real-analysis sequences-and-series
real-analysis sequences-and-series
asked Jan 21 at 19:08
JustAnAmateurJustAnAmateur
1096
1096
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1}) to 0$ implies
$$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1})^2 = a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_{n+1} a_{n-1} + a_{n-1}^2 to 0.$$
Combining this with the other assumption shows that
$$a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_n^2 + a_{n-1}^2 to 0$$
from which you may conclude $a_n to 0$.
$endgroup$
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1}) to 0$ implies
$$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1})^2 = a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_{n+1} a_{n-1} + a_{n-1}^2 to 0.$$
Combining this with the other assumption shows that
$$a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_n^2 + a_{n-1}^2 to 0$$
from which you may conclude $a_n to 0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1}) to 0$ implies
$$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1})^2 = a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_{n+1} a_{n-1} + a_{n-1}^2 to 0.$$
Combining this with the other assumption shows that
$$a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_n^2 + a_{n-1}^2 to 0$$
from which you may conclude $a_n to 0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1}) to 0$ implies
$$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1})^2 = a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_{n+1} a_{n-1} + a_{n-1}^2 to 0.$$
Combining this with the other assumption shows that
$$a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_n^2 + a_{n-1}^2 to 0$$
from which you may conclude $a_n to 0$.
$endgroup$
$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1}) to 0$ implies
$$(a_{n+1} + a_{n-1})^2 = a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_{n+1} a_{n-1} + a_{n-1}^2 to 0.$$
Combining this with the other assumption shows that
$$a_{n+1}^2 + 2 a_n^2 + a_{n-1}^2 to 0$$
from which you may conclude $a_n to 0$.
answered Jan 21 at 19:23
angryavianangryavian
42k23381
42k23381
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