Can a celebrity sue someone who takes obnoxious pictures/videos of him in public and uploads onto internet...












16














Suppose a celebrity digs his nose or scratches his private part because of sudden itch or performs some unsightly act in public. Someone takes his picture/video and uploads onto internet without his permission. The celebrity is shamed in public. By depicting the celebrity in an unflattering light, his value as a celebrity is diminished.



Can the celebrity sue for damages since the pictures/video were taken without his permission? His privacy has also been violated.



Assume celebrity is American.










share|improve this question




















  • 8




    I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
    – colmde
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:25






  • 1




    Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
    – Darkwing
    Nov 21 '18 at 14:46






  • 7




    That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
    – Trilarion
    Nov 21 '18 at 15:35






  • 11




    "Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
    – UKMonkey
    Nov 21 '18 at 15:55






  • 1




    Hello and welcome to the site. Please edit this to specify a jurisdiction.
    – curiousdannii
    Nov 22 '18 at 5:49
















16














Suppose a celebrity digs his nose or scratches his private part because of sudden itch or performs some unsightly act in public. Someone takes his picture/video and uploads onto internet without his permission. The celebrity is shamed in public. By depicting the celebrity in an unflattering light, his value as a celebrity is diminished.



Can the celebrity sue for damages since the pictures/video were taken without his permission? His privacy has also been violated.



Assume celebrity is American.










share|improve this question




















  • 8




    I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
    – colmde
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:25






  • 1




    Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
    – Darkwing
    Nov 21 '18 at 14:46






  • 7




    That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
    – Trilarion
    Nov 21 '18 at 15:35






  • 11




    "Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
    – UKMonkey
    Nov 21 '18 at 15:55






  • 1




    Hello and welcome to the site. Please edit this to specify a jurisdiction.
    – curiousdannii
    Nov 22 '18 at 5:49














16












16








16







Suppose a celebrity digs his nose or scratches his private part because of sudden itch or performs some unsightly act in public. Someone takes his picture/video and uploads onto internet without his permission. The celebrity is shamed in public. By depicting the celebrity in an unflattering light, his value as a celebrity is diminished.



Can the celebrity sue for damages since the pictures/video were taken without his permission? His privacy has also been violated.



Assume celebrity is American.










share|improve this question















Suppose a celebrity digs his nose or scratches his private part because of sudden itch or performs some unsightly act in public. Someone takes his picture/video and uploads onto internet without his permission. The celebrity is shamed in public. By depicting the celebrity in an unflattering light, his value as a celebrity is diminished.



Can the celebrity sue for damages since the pictures/video were taken without his permission? His privacy has also been violated.



Assume celebrity is American.







privacy photography right-of-publicity






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Nov 22 '18 at 6:01

























asked Nov 21 '18 at 8:14









user768421

20326




20326








  • 8




    I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
    – colmde
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:25






  • 1




    Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
    – Darkwing
    Nov 21 '18 at 14:46






  • 7




    That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
    – Trilarion
    Nov 21 '18 at 15:35






  • 11




    "Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
    – UKMonkey
    Nov 21 '18 at 15:55






  • 1




    Hello and welcome to the site. Please edit this to specify a jurisdiction.
    – curiousdannii
    Nov 22 '18 at 5:49














  • 8




    I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
    – colmde
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:25






  • 1




    Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
    – Darkwing
    Nov 21 '18 at 14:46






  • 7




    That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
    – Trilarion
    Nov 21 '18 at 15:35






  • 11




    "Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
    – UKMonkey
    Nov 21 '18 at 15:55






  • 1




    Hello and welcome to the site. Please edit this to specify a jurisdiction.
    – curiousdannii
    Nov 22 '18 at 5:49








8




8




I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
– colmde
Nov 21 '18 at 8:25




I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
– colmde
Nov 21 '18 at 8:25




1




1




Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
– Darkwing
Nov 21 '18 at 14:46




Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
– Darkwing
Nov 21 '18 at 14:46




7




7




That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
– Trilarion
Nov 21 '18 at 15:35




That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
– Trilarion
Nov 21 '18 at 15:35




11




11




"Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
– UKMonkey
Nov 21 '18 at 15:55




"Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
– UKMonkey
Nov 21 '18 at 15:55




1




1




Hello and welcome to the site. Please edit this to specify a jurisdiction.
– curiousdannii
Nov 22 '18 at 5:49




Hello and welcome to the site. Please edit this to specify a jurisdiction.
– curiousdannii
Nov 22 '18 at 5:49










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















34














As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.






share|improve this answer



















  • 3




    @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
    – Greendrake
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:29






  • 5




    I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
    – ANeves
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:42






  • 2




    @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
    – only_pro
    Nov 21 '18 at 17:32








  • 6




    The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
    – David Schwartz
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:23








  • 2




    @DPenner1 From here: "Generally, a model release is only required if the way the photo is published makes it seem that the person in the photo endorses the product, service, or organization." "Whatever way" did not mean to include deceiving anyone into thinking that the way was endorsed by the person on the photo.
    – Greendrake
    Nov 22 '18 at 18:26



















6














If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




  • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

  • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

  • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.






share|improve this answer

















  • 1




    To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
    – John Bollinger
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:01






  • 1




    @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
    – Malvolio
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:10






  • 2




    How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
    – John Bollinger
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:14








  • 7




    @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
    – Nic Hartley
    Nov 21 '18 at 17:25






  • 1




    @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
    – David Schwartz
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:27



















4














Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!






share|improve this answer





























    -3














    Yes.
    Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



    There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 9




      Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
      – Harper
      Nov 21 '18 at 21:32













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    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes








    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    34














    As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



    The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.






    share|improve this answer



















    • 3




      @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
      – Greendrake
      Nov 21 '18 at 8:29






    • 5




      I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
      – ANeves
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:42






    • 2




      @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
      – only_pro
      Nov 21 '18 at 17:32








    • 6




      The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
      – David Schwartz
      Nov 21 '18 at 19:23








    • 2




      @DPenner1 From here: "Generally, a model release is only required if the way the photo is published makes it seem that the person in the photo endorses the product, service, or organization." "Whatever way" did not mean to include deceiving anyone into thinking that the way was endorsed by the person on the photo.
      – Greendrake
      Nov 22 '18 at 18:26
















    34














    As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



    The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.






    share|improve this answer



















    • 3




      @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
      – Greendrake
      Nov 21 '18 at 8:29






    • 5




      I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
      – ANeves
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:42






    • 2




      @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
      – only_pro
      Nov 21 '18 at 17:32








    • 6




      The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
      – David Schwartz
      Nov 21 '18 at 19:23








    • 2




      @DPenner1 From here: "Generally, a model release is only required if the way the photo is published makes it seem that the person in the photo endorses the product, service, or organization." "Whatever way" did not mean to include deceiving anyone into thinking that the way was endorsed by the person on the photo.
      – Greendrake
      Nov 22 '18 at 18:26














    34












    34








    34






    As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



    The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.






    share|improve this answer














    As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



    The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited Nov 21 '18 at 19:09









    ANeves

    1033




    1033










    answered Nov 21 '18 at 8:25









    Greendrake

    2,4071820




    2,4071820








    • 3




      @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
      – Greendrake
      Nov 21 '18 at 8:29






    • 5




      I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
      – ANeves
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:42






    • 2




      @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
      – only_pro
      Nov 21 '18 at 17:32








    • 6




      The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
      – David Schwartz
      Nov 21 '18 at 19:23








    • 2




      @DPenner1 From here: "Generally, a model release is only required if the way the photo is published makes it seem that the person in the photo endorses the product, service, or organization." "Whatever way" did not mean to include deceiving anyone into thinking that the way was endorsed by the person on the photo.
      – Greendrake
      Nov 22 '18 at 18:26














    • 3




      @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
      – Greendrake
      Nov 21 '18 at 8:29






    • 5




      I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
      – ANeves
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:42






    • 2




      @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
      – only_pro
      Nov 21 '18 at 17:32








    • 6




      The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
      – David Schwartz
      Nov 21 '18 at 19:23








    • 2




      @DPenner1 From here: "Generally, a model release is only required if the way the photo is published makes it seem that the person in the photo endorses the product, service, or organization." "Whatever way" did not mean to include deceiving anyone into thinking that the way was endorsed by the person on the photo.
      – Greendrake
      Nov 22 '18 at 18:26








    3




    3




    @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
    – Greendrake
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:29




    @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
    – Greendrake
    Nov 21 '18 at 8:29




    5




    5




    I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
    – ANeves
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:42




    I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
    – ANeves
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:42




    2




    2




    @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
    – only_pro
    Nov 21 '18 at 17:32






    @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
    – only_pro
    Nov 21 '18 at 17:32






    6




    6




    The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
    – David Schwartz
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:23






    The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
    – David Schwartz
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:23






    2




    2




    @DPenner1 From here: "Generally, a model release is only required if the way the photo is published makes it seem that the person in the photo endorses the product, service, or organization." "Whatever way" did not mean to include deceiving anyone into thinking that the way was endorsed by the person on the photo.
    – Greendrake
    Nov 22 '18 at 18:26




    @DPenner1 From here: "Generally, a model release is only required if the way the photo is published makes it seem that the person in the photo endorses the product, service, or organization." "Whatever way" did not mean to include deceiving anyone into thinking that the way was endorsed by the person on the photo.
    – Greendrake
    Nov 22 '18 at 18:26











    6














    If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




    • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

    • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

    • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
      – John Bollinger
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:01






    • 1




      @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
      – Malvolio
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:10






    • 2




      How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
      – John Bollinger
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:14








    • 7




      @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
      – Nic Hartley
      Nov 21 '18 at 17:25






    • 1




      @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
      – David Schwartz
      Nov 21 '18 at 19:27
















    6














    If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




    • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

    • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

    • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
      – John Bollinger
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:01






    • 1




      @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
      – Malvolio
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:10






    • 2




      How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
      – John Bollinger
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:14








    • 7




      @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
      – Nic Hartley
      Nov 21 '18 at 17:25






    • 1




      @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
      – David Schwartz
      Nov 21 '18 at 19:27














    6












    6








    6






    If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




    • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

    • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

    • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.






    share|improve this answer












    If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




    • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

    • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

    • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered Nov 21 '18 at 8:25









    bdb484

    11k11642




    11k11642








    • 1




      To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
      – John Bollinger
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:01






    • 1




      @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
      – Malvolio
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:10






    • 2




      How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
      – John Bollinger
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:14








    • 7




      @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
      – Nic Hartley
      Nov 21 '18 at 17:25






    • 1




      @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
      – David Schwartz
      Nov 21 '18 at 19:27














    • 1




      To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
      – John Bollinger
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:01






    • 1




      @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
      – Malvolio
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:10






    • 2




      How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
      – John Bollinger
      Nov 21 '18 at 16:14








    • 7




      @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
      – Nic Hartley
      Nov 21 '18 at 17:25






    • 1




      @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
      – David Schwartz
      Nov 21 '18 at 19:27








    1




    1




    To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
    – John Bollinger
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:01




    To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
    – John Bollinger
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:01




    1




    1




    @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
    – Malvolio
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:10




    @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
    – Malvolio
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:10




    2




    2




    How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
    – John Bollinger
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:14






    How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
    – John Bollinger
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:14






    7




    7




    @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
    – Nic Hartley
    Nov 21 '18 at 17:25




    @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
    – Nic Hartley
    Nov 21 '18 at 17:25




    1




    1




    @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
    – David Schwartz
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:27




    @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
    – David Schwartz
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:27











    4














    Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



    The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!






    share|improve this answer


























      4














      Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



      The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!






      share|improve this answer
























        4












        4








        4






        Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



        The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!






        share|improve this answer












        Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



        The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered Nov 21 '18 at 18:02









        John U

        1492




        1492























            -3














            Yes.
            Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



            There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.






            share|improve this answer

















            • 9




              Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
              – Harper
              Nov 21 '18 at 21:32


















            -3














            Yes.
            Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



            There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.






            share|improve this answer

















            • 9




              Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
              – Harper
              Nov 21 '18 at 21:32
















            -3












            -3








            -3






            Yes.
            Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



            There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.






            share|improve this answer












            Yes.
            Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



            There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered Nov 21 '18 at 19:35









            Miles Prower

            271




            271








            • 9




              Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
              – Harper
              Nov 21 '18 at 21:32
















            • 9




              Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
              – Harper
              Nov 21 '18 at 21:32










            9




            9




            Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
            – Harper
            Nov 21 '18 at 21:32






            Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
            – Harper
            Nov 21 '18 at 21:32




















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