Help needed with an equation












0












$begingroup$


Can someone help me solve this



$e^{-x}=ln(1/x)$



I think these two functions are inverses of each other and since they both meet the line $y=x$ they intersect



But I'm not able to simplify the equality above to find their point of intersection



Help me, please.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Try using Lambert W function.
    $endgroup$
    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
    Jan 27 at 4:37










  • $begingroup$
    WolframAlpha solves it as $x = 0.56714329040978dots$. The Inverse Symbolic Calculator gives this as $x = W(1)$ with the Lambert W function and $W(1)$ as the Omega constant.
    $endgroup$
    – Tito Piezas III
    Jan 27 at 5:52


















0












$begingroup$


Can someone help me solve this



$e^{-x}=ln(1/x)$



I think these two functions are inverses of each other and since they both meet the line $y=x$ they intersect



But I'm not able to simplify the equality above to find their point of intersection



Help me, please.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Try using Lambert W function.
    $endgroup$
    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
    Jan 27 at 4:37










  • $begingroup$
    WolframAlpha solves it as $x = 0.56714329040978dots$. The Inverse Symbolic Calculator gives this as $x = W(1)$ with the Lambert W function and $W(1)$ as the Omega constant.
    $endgroup$
    – Tito Piezas III
    Jan 27 at 5:52
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Can someone help me solve this



$e^{-x}=ln(1/x)$



I think these two functions are inverses of each other and since they both meet the line $y=x$ they intersect



But I'm not able to simplify the equality above to find their point of intersection



Help me, please.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Can someone help me solve this



$e^{-x}=ln(1/x)$



I think these two functions are inverses of each other and since they both meet the line $y=x$ they intersect



But I'm not able to simplify the equality above to find their point of intersection



Help me, please.







linear-algebra functions systems-of-equations






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 27 at 16:59









Cesareo

9,4713517




9,4713517










asked Jan 27 at 4:31









LeeLee

526




526








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Try using Lambert W function.
    $endgroup$
    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
    Jan 27 at 4:37










  • $begingroup$
    WolframAlpha solves it as $x = 0.56714329040978dots$. The Inverse Symbolic Calculator gives this as $x = W(1)$ with the Lambert W function and $W(1)$ as the Omega constant.
    $endgroup$
    – Tito Piezas III
    Jan 27 at 5:52
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Try using Lambert W function.
    $endgroup$
    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
    Jan 27 at 4:37










  • $begingroup$
    WolframAlpha solves it as $x = 0.56714329040978dots$. The Inverse Symbolic Calculator gives this as $x = W(1)$ with the Lambert W function and $W(1)$ as the Omega constant.
    $endgroup$
    – Tito Piezas III
    Jan 27 at 5:52










1




1




$begingroup$
Try using Lambert W function.
$endgroup$
– Sujit Bhattacharyya
Jan 27 at 4:37




$begingroup$
Try using Lambert W function.
$endgroup$
– Sujit Bhattacharyya
Jan 27 at 4:37












$begingroup$
WolframAlpha solves it as $x = 0.56714329040978dots$. The Inverse Symbolic Calculator gives this as $x = W(1)$ with the Lambert W function and $W(1)$ as the Omega constant.
$endgroup$
– Tito Piezas III
Jan 27 at 5:52






$begingroup$
WolframAlpha solves it as $x = 0.56714329040978dots$. The Inverse Symbolic Calculator gives this as $x = W(1)$ with the Lambert W function and $W(1)$ as the Omega constant.
$endgroup$
– Tito Piezas III
Jan 27 at 5:52












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. Then you will need some numerical method for finding the zero of function
$$f(x)=e^{-x}+log(x)$$ Its derivative
$$f'(x)=-e^{-x}+frac 1x$$ cancels when $x=-W(-1)$ which is a complex number; so, $f'(x)>0 $and there is only one root.



By inspection, $f(1)=frac 1e >0$. So, using Newton method with $x_0=1$ will give the following iterates
$$left(
begin{array}{cc}
n & x_n \
0 & 1.0000000000 \
1 & 0.4180232931 \
2 & 0.5413727558 \
3 & 0.5664266698 \
4 & 0.5671427445 \
5 & 0.5671432904
end{array}
right)$$



We could have generated a better estimate of the starting point building first the simplest Padé approximant at $x=1$
$$f(x) simeq frac{frac{1}{e}+frac{(2 e-1) }{2 e}(x-1)}{1+frac{1}{2}(x-1)}$$ giving $x_0=frac{2 e-3}{2 e-1}approx 0.549201$.



Continuing with $[1,n]$ Padé approximants, it will be closer and closer to the solution as shown below
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
1 & frac{-3+2 e}{-1+2 e} & 0.5492006529 \
2 & frac{-8+34 e-36 e^2+12 e^3}{-2+16 e-24 e^2+12 e^3} & 0.5651368901 \
3 & frac{30-300 e+636 e^2-504 e^3+144 e^4}{6-108 e+348 e^2-360 e^3+144 e^4} & 0.5670287743 \
4 & frac{-144+3216 e-12480 e^2+18000 e^3-11520 e^4+2880 e^5}{-24+1056 e-5520 e^2+10800 e^3-8640 e^4+2880 e^5} & 0.5671134681
end{array}
right)$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    @Lee. I am obviously wrong when I write There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. As Robert Israel commented, the solution is the so-called $Omega$ constant. Have a look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omega_constant
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jan 27 at 5:50



















0












$begingroup$

Alpha gives a numeric solution $x approx 0.56714$ I don't think it surprising that it did not give an analytic result. This looks like an equation that will not yield to algebra.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Mathway gave me $approx{0.36787894412}$ which is $frac{1}{e}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gnumbertester
    Jan 27 at 4:42








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Perhaps surprisingly, Maple doesn't solve it symbolically either. But the solution is $W(1)$ where $W$ is the Lambert W function.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 27 at 4:43












  • $begingroup$
    @Gnumbertester Probably you entered the wrong equation. $1/e$ is certainly not a solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 27 at 4:44










  • $begingroup$
    @RobertIsreal That's interesting. It's easy to see that it is not a solution but Mathway still gives it. Here is what I entered it in.<mathway.com/Calculus>
    $endgroup$
    – Gnumbertester
    Jan 27 at 4:48



















0












$begingroup$

As you observed, the functions $f(x)=e^{-x}$ and $g(x)=log(1/x)$ are inverses. If $f(x)$ intersects $y=x$ at $a$ then we have $f(a)=a$. Applying $g$ we get $a=g(a)$. Then $f(a)=g(a)$ and $a$ is a solution for the equation. So we have $a = f(a) = e^{-a}$, which is equivalent to $a e^a = 1$. This is precisely the equation that is solved by the Lambert $W$ function. Apply $W$ to get $a = W(1)$






share|cite|improve this answer









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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. Then you will need some numerical method for finding the zero of function
    $$f(x)=e^{-x}+log(x)$$ Its derivative
    $$f'(x)=-e^{-x}+frac 1x$$ cancels when $x=-W(-1)$ which is a complex number; so, $f'(x)>0 $and there is only one root.



    By inspection, $f(1)=frac 1e >0$. So, using Newton method with $x_0=1$ will give the following iterates
    $$left(
    begin{array}{cc}
    n & x_n \
    0 & 1.0000000000 \
    1 & 0.4180232931 \
    2 & 0.5413727558 \
    3 & 0.5664266698 \
    4 & 0.5671427445 \
    5 & 0.5671432904
    end{array}
    right)$$



    We could have generated a better estimate of the starting point building first the simplest Padé approximant at $x=1$
    $$f(x) simeq frac{frac{1}{e}+frac{(2 e-1) }{2 e}(x-1)}{1+frac{1}{2}(x-1)}$$ giving $x_0=frac{2 e-3}{2 e-1}approx 0.549201$.



    Continuing with $[1,n]$ Padé approximants, it will be closer and closer to the solution as shown below
    $$left(
    begin{array}{ccc}
    1 & frac{-3+2 e}{-1+2 e} & 0.5492006529 \
    2 & frac{-8+34 e-36 e^2+12 e^3}{-2+16 e-24 e^2+12 e^3} & 0.5651368901 \
    3 & frac{30-300 e+636 e^2-504 e^3+144 e^4}{6-108 e+348 e^2-360 e^3+144 e^4} & 0.5670287743 \
    4 & frac{-144+3216 e-12480 e^2+18000 e^3-11520 e^4+2880 e^5}{-24+1056 e-5520 e^2+10800 e^3-8640 e^4+2880 e^5} & 0.5671134681
    end{array}
    right)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      @Lee. I am obviously wrong when I write There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. As Robert Israel commented, the solution is the so-called $Omega$ constant. Have a look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omega_constant
      $endgroup$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Jan 27 at 5:50
















    1












    $begingroup$

    There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. Then you will need some numerical method for finding the zero of function
    $$f(x)=e^{-x}+log(x)$$ Its derivative
    $$f'(x)=-e^{-x}+frac 1x$$ cancels when $x=-W(-1)$ which is a complex number; so, $f'(x)>0 $and there is only one root.



    By inspection, $f(1)=frac 1e >0$. So, using Newton method with $x_0=1$ will give the following iterates
    $$left(
    begin{array}{cc}
    n & x_n \
    0 & 1.0000000000 \
    1 & 0.4180232931 \
    2 & 0.5413727558 \
    3 & 0.5664266698 \
    4 & 0.5671427445 \
    5 & 0.5671432904
    end{array}
    right)$$



    We could have generated a better estimate of the starting point building first the simplest Padé approximant at $x=1$
    $$f(x) simeq frac{frac{1}{e}+frac{(2 e-1) }{2 e}(x-1)}{1+frac{1}{2}(x-1)}$$ giving $x_0=frac{2 e-3}{2 e-1}approx 0.549201$.



    Continuing with $[1,n]$ Padé approximants, it will be closer and closer to the solution as shown below
    $$left(
    begin{array}{ccc}
    1 & frac{-3+2 e}{-1+2 e} & 0.5492006529 \
    2 & frac{-8+34 e-36 e^2+12 e^3}{-2+16 e-24 e^2+12 e^3} & 0.5651368901 \
    3 & frac{30-300 e+636 e^2-504 e^3+144 e^4}{6-108 e+348 e^2-360 e^3+144 e^4} & 0.5670287743 \
    4 & frac{-144+3216 e-12480 e^2+18000 e^3-11520 e^4+2880 e^5}{-24+1056 e-5520 e^2+10800 e^3-8640 e^4+2880 e^5} & 0.5671134681
    end{array}
    right)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      @Lee. I am obviously wrong when I write There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. As Robert Israel commented, the solution is the so-called $Omega$ constant. Have a look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omega_constant
      $endgroup$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Jan 27 at 5:50














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. Then you will need some numerical method for finding the zero of function
    $$f(x)=e^{-x}+log(x)$$ Its derivative
    $$f'(x)=-e^{-x}+frac 1x$$ cancels when $x=-W(-1)$ which is a complex number; so, $f'(x)>0 $and there is only one root.



    By inspection, $f(1)=frac 1e >0$. So, using Newton method with $x_0=1$ will give the following iterates
    $$left(
    begin{array}{cc}
    n & x_n \
    0 & 1.0000000000 \
    1 & 0.4180232931 \
    2 & 0.5413727558 \
    3 & 0.5664266698 \
    4 & 0.5671427445 \
    5 & 0.5671432904
    end{array}
    right)$$



    We could have generated a better estimate of the starting point building first the simplest Padé approximant at $x=1$
    $$f(x) simeq frac{frac{1}{e}+frac{(2 e-1) }{2 e}(x-1)}{1+frac{1}{2}(x-1)}$$ giving $x_0=frac{2 e-3}{2 e-1}approx 0.549201$.



    Continuing with $[1,n]$ Padé approximants, it will be closer and closer to the solution as shown below
    $$left(
    begin{array}{ccc}
    1 & frac{-3+2 e}{-1+2 e} & 0.5492006529 \
    2 & frac{-8+34 e-36 e^2+12 e^3}{-2+16 e-24 e^2+12 e^3} & 0.5651368901 \
    3 & frac{30-300 e+636 e^2-504 e^3+144 e^4}{6-108 e+348 e^2-360 e^3+144 e^4} & 0.5670287743 \
    4 & frac{-144+3216 e-12480 e^2+18000 e^3-11520 e^4+2880 e^5}{-24+1056 e-5520 e^2+10800 e^3-8640 e^4+2880 e^5} & 0.5671134681
    end{array}
    right)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. Then you will need some numerical method for finding the zero of function
    $$f(x)=e^{-x}+log(x)$$ Its derivative
    $$f'(x)=-e^{-x}+frac 1x$$ cancels when $x=-W(-1)$ which is a complex number; so, $f'(x)>0 $and there is only one root.



    By inspection, $f(1)=frac 1e >0$. So, using Newton method with $x_0=1$ will give the following iterates
    $$left(
    begin{array}{cc}
    n & x_n \
    0 & 1.0000000000 \
    1 & 0.4180232931 \
    2 & 0.5413727558 \
    3 & 0.5664266698 \
    4 & 0.5671427445 \
    5 & 0.5671432904
    end{array}
    right)$$



    We could have generated a better estimate of the starting point building first the simplest Padé approximant at $x=1$
    $$f(x) simeq frac{frac{1}{e}+frac{(2 e-1) }{2 e}(x-1)}{1+frac{1}{2}(x-1)}$$ giving $x_0=frac{2 e-3}{2 e-1}approx 0.549201$.



    Continuing with $[1,n]$ Padé approximants, it will be closer and closer to the solution as shown below
    $$left(
    begin{array}{ccc}
    1 & frac{-3+2 e}{-1+2 e} & 0.5492006529 \
    2 & frac{-8+34 e-36 e^2+12 e^3}{-2+16 e-24 e^2+12 e^3} & 0.5651368901 \
    3 & frac{30-300 e+636 e^2-504 e^3+144 e^4}{6-108 e+348 e^2-360 e^3+144 e^4} & 0.5670287743 \
    4 & frac{-144+3216 e-12480 e^2+18000 e^3-11520 e^4+2880 e^5}{-24+1056 e-5520 e^2+10800 e^3-8640 e^4+2880 e^5} & 0.5671134681
    end{array}
    right)$$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 27 at 5:07









    Claude LeiboviciClaude Leibovici

    124k1158135




    124k1158135












    • $begingroup$
      @Lee. I am obviously wrong when I write There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. As Robert Israel commented, the solution is the so-called $Omega$ constant. Have a look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omega_constant
      $endgroup$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Jan 27 at 5:50


















    • $begingroup$
      @Lee. I am obviously wrong when I write There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. As Robert Israel commented, the solution is the so-called $Omega$ constant. Have a look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omega_constant
      $endgroup$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Jan 27 at 5:50
















    $begingroup$
    @Lee. I am obviously wrong when I write There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. As Robert Israel commented, the solution is the so-called $Omega$ constant. Have a look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omega_constant
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jan 27 at 5:50




    $begingroup$
    @Lee. I am obviously wrong when I write There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. As Robert Israel commented, the solution is the so-called $Omega$ constant. Have a look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omega_constant
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jan 27 at 5:50











    0












    $begingroup$

    Alpha gives a numeric solution $x approx 0.56714$ I don't think it surprising that it did not give an analytic result. This looks like an equation that will not yield to algebra.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Mathway gave me $approx{0.36787894412}$ which is $frac{1}{e}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Gnumbertester
      Jan 27 at 4:42








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Perhaps surprisingly, Maple doesn't solve it symbolically either. But the solution is $W(1)$ where $W$ is the Lambert W function.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Israel
      Jan 27 at 4:43












    • $begingroup$
      @Gnumbertester Probably you entered the wrong equation. $1/e$ is certainly not a solution.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Israel
      Jan 27 at 4:44










    • $begingroup$
      @RobertIsreal That's interesting. It's easy to see that it is not a solution but Mathway still gives it. Here is what I entered it in.<mathway.com/Calculus>
      $endgroup$
      – Gnumbertester
      Jan 27 at 4:48
















    0












    $begingroup$

    Alpha gives a numeric solution $x approx 0.56714$ I don't think it surprising that it did not give an analytic result. This looks like an equation that will not yield to algebra.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Mathway gave me $approx{0.36787894412}$ which is $frac{1}{e}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Gnumbertester
      Jan 27 at 4:42








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Perhaps surprisingly, Maple doesn't solve it symbolically either. But the solution is $W(1)$ where $W$ is the Lambert W function.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Israel
      Jan 27 at 4:43












    • $begingroup$
      @Gnumbertester Probably you entered the wrong equation. $1/e$ is certainly not a solution.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Israel
      Jan 27 at 4:44










    • $begingroup$
      @RobertIsreal That's interesting. It's easy to see that it is not a solution but Mathway still gives it. Here is what I entered it in.<mathway.com/Calculus>
      $endgroup$
      – Gnumbertester
      Jan 27 at 4:48














    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    Alpha gives a numeric solution $x approx 0.56714$ I don't think it surprising that it did not give an analytic result. This looks like an equation that will not yield to algebra.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Alpha gives a numeric solution $x approx 0.56714$ I don't think it surprising that it did not give an analytic result. This looks like an equation that will not yield to algebra.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 27 at 4:40









    Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

    300k24200375




    300k24200375












    • $begingroup$
      Mathway gave me $approx{0.36787894412}$ which is $frac{1}{e}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Gnumbertester
      Jan 27 at 4:42








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Perhaps surprisingly, Maple doesn't solve it symbolically either. But the solution is $W(1)$ where $W$ is the Lambert W function.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Israel
      Jan 27 at 4:43












    • $begingroup$
      @Gnumbertester Probably you entered the wrong equation. $1/e$ is certainly not a solution.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Israel
      Jan 27 at 4:44










    • $begingroup$
      @RobertIsreal That's interesting. It's easy to see that it is not a solution but Mathway still gives it. Here is what I entered it in.<mathway.com/Calculus>
      $endgroup$
      – Gnumbertester
      Jan 27 at 4:48


















    • $begingroup$
      Mathway gave me $approx{0.36787894412}$ which is $frac{1}{e}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Gnumbertester
      Jan 27 at 4:42








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Perhaps surprisingly, Maple doesn't solve it symbolically either. But the solution is $W(1)$ where $W$ is the Lambert W function.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Israel
      Jan 27 at 4:43












    • $begingroup$
      @Gnumbertester Probably you entered the wrong equation. $1/e$ is certainly not a solution.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Israel
      Jan 27 at 4:44










    • $begingroup$
      @RobertIsreal That's interesting. It's easy to see that it is not a solution but Mathway still gives it. Here is what I entered it in.<mathway.com/Calculus>
      $endgroup$
      – Gnumbertester
      Jan 27 at 4:48
















    $begingroup$
    Mathway gave me $approx{0.36787894412}$ which is $frac{1}{e}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gnumbertester
    Jan 27 at 4:42






    $begingroup$
    Mathway gave me $approx{0.36787894412}$ which is $frac{1}{e}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gnumbertester
    Jan 27 at 4:42






    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Perhaps surprisingly, Maple doesn't solve it symbolically either. But the solution is $W(1)$ where $W$ is the Lambert W function.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 27 at 4:43






    $begingroup$
    Perhaps surprisingly, Maple doesn't solve it symbolically either. But the solution is $W(1)$ where $W$ is the Lambert W function.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 27 at 4:43














    $begingroup$
    @Gnumbertester Probably you entered the wrong equation. $1/e$ is certainly not a solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 27 at 4:44




    $begingroup$
    @Gnumbertester Probably you entered the wrong equation. $1/e$ is certainly not a solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 27 at 4:44












    $begingroup$
    @RobertIsreal That's interesting. It's easy to see that it is not a solution but Mathway still gives it. Here is what I entered it in.<mathway.com/Calculus>
    $endgroup$
    – Gnumbertester
    Jan 27 at 4:48




    $begingroup$
    @RobertIsreal That's interesting. It's easy to see that it is not a solution but Mathway still gives it. Here is what I entered it in.<mathway.com/Calculus>
    $endgroup$
    – Gnumbertester
    Jan 27 at 4:48











    0












    $begingroup$

    As you observed, the functions $f(x)=e^{-x}$ and $g(x)=log(1/x)$ are inverses. If $f(x)$ intersects $y=x$ at $a$ then we have $f(a)=a$. Applying $g$ we get $a=g(a)$. Then $f(a)=g(a)$ and $a$ is a solution for the equation. So we have $a = f(a) = e^{-a}$, which is equivalent to $a e^a = 1$. This is precisely the equation that is solved by the Lambert $W$ function. Apply $W$ to get $a = W(1)$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      As you observed, the functions $f(x)=e^{-x}$ and $g(x)=log(1/x)$ are inverses. If $f(x)$ intersects $y=x$ at $a$ then we have $f(a)=a$. Applying $g$ we get $a=g(a)$. Then $f(a)=g(a)$ and $a$ is a solution for the equation. So we have $a = f(a) = e^{-a}$, which is equivalent to $a e^a = 1$. This is precisely the equation that is solved by the Lambert $W$ function. Apply $W$ to get $a = W(1)$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        As you observed, the functions $f(x)=e^{-x}$ and $g(x)=log(1/x)$ are inverses. If $f(x)$ intersects $y=x$ at $a$ then we have $f(a)=a$. Applying $g$ we get $a=g(a)$. Then $f(a)=g(a)$ and $a$ is a solution for the equation. So we have $a = f(a) = e^{-a}$, which is equivalent to $a e^a = 1$. This is precisely the equation that is solved by the Lambert $W$ function. Apply $W$ to get $a = W(1)$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        As you observed, the functions $f(x)=e^{-x}$ and $g(x)=log(1/x)$ are inverses. If $f(x)$ intersects $y=x$ at $a$ then we have $f(a)=a$. Applying $g$ we get $a=g(a)$. Then $f(a)=g(a)$ and $a$ is a solution for the equation. So we have $a = f(a) = e^{-a}$, which is equivalent to $a e^a = 1$. This is precisely the equation that is solved by the Lambert $W$ function. Apply $W$ to get $a = W(1)$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 31 at 19:23









        jjagmathjjagmath

        3387




        3387






























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