Maclaurin expansion












0












$begingroup$


$ f(x,y)=sin(x-2y)$



I have to expand this into Maclaurin series.



Of course I would like to use known series



$sinx = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}$



First of all, i treat $x$ as variable, and $y$ as parameter. We have that



$frac{d}{dx}f(x,y) = cos(x-2y)$



$frac{d^2}{dx^2}f(x,y) = -sin(x-2y)$



$frac{d^3}{dx^3}f(x,y) = -cos(x-2y)$



$frac{d^4}{dx^4}f(x,y) = sin(x-2y)$



...



$frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 1$



$frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 0$



$frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 1$



$frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 0$



...



$y$ as variable, and $x$ as parameter. We have that



$frac{d}{dy}f(x,y) = -2cos(x-2y)$



$frac{d^2}{dy^2}f(x,y) = -4sin(x-2y)$



$frac{d^3}{dy^3}f(x,y) = 8cos(x-2y)$



$frac{d^4}{dy^4}f(x,y) = 16sin(x-2y)$



...



$frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = -2$



$frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 0$



$frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 8$



$frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 0$



And what now? How I should write my series?



I think this



$sin(x-2y) = (sum_{k=0}^infty (-1)^kfrac{x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!})$$( sum_{l=0}^infty (-1)^lfrac{y^{2l+1}}{(2l+1)!})$



is completly wrong. Give me some advice or just show me how to make it, thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    $ f(x,y)=sin(x-2y)$



    I have to expand this into Maclaurin series.



    Of course I would like to use known series



    $sinx = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}$



    First of all, i treat $x$ as variable, and $y$ as parameter. We have that



    $frac{d}{dx}f(x,y) = cos(x-2y)$



    $frac{d^2}{dx^2}f(x,y) = -sin(x-2y)$



    $frac{d^3}{dx^3}f(x,y) = -cos(x-2y)$



    $frac{d^4}{dx^4}f(x,y) = sin(x-2y)$



    ...



    $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 1$



    $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 0$



    $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 1$



    $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 0$



    ...



    $y$ as variable, and $x$ as parameter. We have that



    $frac{d}{dy}f(x,y) = -2cos(x-2y)$



    $frac{d^2}{dy^2}f(x,y) = -4sin(x-2y)$



    $frac{d^3}{dy^3}f(x,y) = 8cos(x-2y)$



    $frac{d^4}{dy^4}f(x,y) = 16sin(x-2y)$



    ...



    $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = -2$



    $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 0$



    $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 8$



    $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 0$



    And what now? How I should write my series?



    I think this



    $sin(x-2y) = (sum_{k=0}^infty (-1)^kfrac{x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!})$$( sum_{l=0}^infty (-1)^lfrac{y^{2l+1}}{(2l+1)!})$



    is completly wrong. Give me some advice or just show me how to make it, thanks.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      $ f(x,y)=sin(x-2y)$



      I have to expand this into Maclaurin series.



      Of course I would like to use known series



      $sinx = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}$



      First of all, i treat $x$ as variable, and $y$ as parameter. We have that



      $frac{d}{dx}f(x,y) = cos(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^2}{dx^2}f(x,y) = -sin(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^3}{dx^3}f(x,y) = -cos(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^4}{dx^4}f(x,y) = sin(x-2y)$



      ...



      $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 1$



      $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 0$



      $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 1$



      $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 0$



      ...



      $y$ as variable, and $x$ as parameter. We have that



      $frac{d}{dy}f(x,y) = -2cos(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^2}{dy^2}f(x,y) = -4sin(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^3}{dy^3}f(x,y) = 8cos(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^4}{dy^4}f(x,y) = 16sin(x-2y)$



      ...



      $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = -2$



      $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 0$



      $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 8$



      $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 0$



      And what now? How I should write my series?



      I think this



      $sin(x-2y) = (sum_{k=0}^infty (-1)^kfrac{x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!})$$( sum_{l=0}^infty (-1)^lfrac{y^{2l+1}}{(2l+1)!})$



      is completly wrong. Give me some advice or just show me how to make it, thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      $ f(x,y)=sin(x-2y)$



      I have to expand this into Maclaurin series.



      Of course I would like to use known series



      $sinx = sum_{n=0}^infty (-1)^nfrac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}$



      First of all, i treat $x$ as variable, and $y$ as parameter. We have that



      $frac{d}{dx}f(x,y) = cos(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^2}{dx^2}f(x,y) = -sin(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^3}{dx^3}f(x,y) = -cos(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^4}{dx^4}f(x,y) = sin(x-2y)$



      ...



      $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 1$



      $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 0$



      $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 1$



      $frac{d}{dx}f(0,0) = 0$



      ...



      $y$ as variable, and $x$ as parameter. We have that



      $frac{d}{dy}f(x,y) = -2cos(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^2}{dy^2}f(x,y) = -4sin(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^3}{dy^3}f(x,y) = 8cos(x-2y)$



      $frac{d^4}{dy^4}f(x,y) = 16sin(x-2y)$



      ...



      $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = -2$



      $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 0$



      $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 8$



      $frac{d}{dy}f(0,0) = 0$



      And what now? How I should write my series?



      I think this



      $sin(x-2y) = (sum_{k=0}^infty (-1)^kfrac{x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!})$$( sum_{l=0}^infty (-1)^lfrac{y^{2l+1}}{(2l+1)!})$



      is completly wrong. Give me some advice or just show me how to make it, thanks.







      analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 27 at 14:22







      Victor

















      asked Jan 27 at 9:24









      VictorVictor

      464




      464






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Better way is to remember that



          $$ sin x = sum frac{ (-1)^n x^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          and so



          $$ sin(x-2y) = sum frac{ (-1)^n (x-2y)^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          One can expand further if using the binomial



          $$ (a+b)^n = sum_{i=0}^n {n choose i} a^i b^{n-i} $$



          Only a masochist would compute the partials..






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            LOL, and that is it? Why we don't use a double sum here? Edit: Because there is only one function, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Victor
            Jan 27 at 9:35












          • $begingroup$
            Use binomial with $a=x$ and $b=-2y$
            $endgroup$
            – Jimmy Sabater
            Jan 27 at 9:36











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Better way is to remember that



          $$ sin x = sum frac{ (-1)^n x^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          and so



          $$ sin(x-2y) = sum frac{ (-1)^n (x-2y)^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          One can expand further if using the binomial



          $$ (a+b)^n = sum_{i=0}^n {n choose i} a^i b^{n-i} $$



          Only a masochist would compute the partials..






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            LOL, and that is it? Why we don't use a double sum here? Edit: Because there is only one function, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Victor
            Jan 27 at 9:35












          • $begingroup$
            Use binomial with $a=x$ and $b=-2y$
            $endgroup$
            – Jimmy Sabater
            Jan 27 at 9:36
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Better way is to remember that



          $$ sin x = sum frac{ (-1)^n x^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          and so



          $$ sin(x-2y) = sum frac{ (-1)^n (x-2y)^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          One can expand further if using the binomial



          $$ (a+b)^n = sum_{i=0}^n {n choose i} a^i b^{n-i} $$



          Only a masochist would compute the partials..






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            LOL, and that is it? Why we don't use a double sum here? Edit: Because there is only one function, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Victor
            Jan 27 at 9:35












          • $begingroup$
            Use binomial with $a=x$ and $b=-2y$
            $endgroup$
            – Jimmy Sabater
            Jan 27 at 9:36














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Better way is to remember that



          $$ sin x = sum frac{ (-1)^n x^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          and so



          $$ sin(x-2y) = sum frac{ (-1)^n (x-2y)^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          One can expand further if using the binomial



          $$ (a+b)^n = sum_{i=0}^n {n choose i} a^i b^{n-i} $$



          Only a masochist would compute the partials..






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Better way is to remember that



          $$ sin x = sum frac{ (-1)^n x^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          and so



          $$ sin(x-2y) = sum frac{ (-1)^n (x-2y)^{2n+1} }{(2n+1)!} $$



          One can expand further if using the binomial



          $$ (a+b)^n = sum_{i=0}^n {n choose i} a^i b^{n-i} $$



          Only a masochist would compute the partials..







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 27 at 9:36

























          answered Jan 27 at 9:31









          Jimmy SabaterJimmy Sabater

          2,539325




          2,539325












          • $begingroup$
            LOL, and that is it? Why we don't use a double sum here? Edit: Because there is only one function, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Victor
            Jan 27 at 9:35












          • $begingroup$
            Use binomial with $a=x$ and $b=-2y$
            $endgroup$
            – Jimmy Sabater
            Jan 27 at 9:36


















          • $begingroup$
            LOL, and that is it? Why we don't use a double sum here? Edit: Because there is only one function, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Victor
            Jan 27 at 9:35












          • $begingroup$
            Use binomial with $a=x$ and $b=-2y$
            $endgroup$
            – Jimmy Sabater
            Jan 27 at 9:36
















          $begingroup$
          LOL, and that is it? Why we don't use a double sum here? Edit: Because there is only one function, right?
          $endgroup$
          – Victor
          Jan 27 at 9:35






          $begingroup$
          LOL, and that is it? Why we don't use a double sum here? Edit: Because there is only one function, right?
          $endgroup$
          – Victor
          Jan 27 at 9:35














          $begingroup$
          Use binomial with $a=x$ and $b=-2y$
          $endgroup$
          – Jimmy Sabater
          Jan 27 at 9:36




          $begingroup$
          Use binomial with $a=x$ and $b=-2y$
          $endgroup$
          – Jimmy Sabater
          Jan 27 at 9:36


















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