Show that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim E_lambda (AA^T)$.












0












$begingroup$


Let $lambda in mathbb R^*$, $n ge 2$.



Let $A in M_n(mathbb R)$, $f$ the linear map defined by $A$.



Let $E_lambda (A^TA) = ker (A^TA - I_n)$ and $E_lambda (A^TA) = ker (AA^T - I_n)$.



Show that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim E_lambda (AA^T)$.



I started by showing that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$:



Let $tilde{f}$ be the restriction of $f$ on $E_lambda (A^TA)$.
We can prove that $tilde{f}$ is injective:



Let $x, x'$ such that $tilde{f}(x) = tilde{f}(x')$, then
$$Ax = Ax'$$
thus $$A^TAx = A^TAx'$$
$i.e$ $$lambda x = lambda x'$$
as $lambda ne 0$, $x=x'$ wich shows that $tilde{f}$ is injective.



We can also prove that $operatorname{Im} tilde{f} subset E_lambda (AA^T)$:



Let $y in operatorname{Im} tilde{f}$, there exists $x in E_lambda (A^TA)$ such that $y = Ax$, hence $$AA^T y = AA^T Ax = lambda Ax = lambda y.$$
Now, using Rank-Nullity theorem, we can write $$dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim operatorname{Im} tilde{f} le dim E_lambda (AA^T).$$



To finish, I would have to prove that $$dim E_lambda (A^TA) ge dim E_lambda (AA^T).$$



I can't figure out how to do it, any help would be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you proved $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$ you can simply swap $A$ and $A^T$ to get $dim E_lambda (AA^T) le dim E_lambda (A^TA)$...
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 27 at 10:32










  • $begingroup$
    Beware, $E_{lambda}(A^TA)=ker(A^TA-lambda I)$.
    $endgroup$
    – loup blanc
    Jan 27 at 16:06










  • $begingroup$
    I see that you have not corrected your statement (line 3)... On the other hand, if you have to assume that $lambdanot= 0$, then it's certainly because $A$ is not assumed to be square (otherwise the equality stands also for $lambda=0$). OK, I will not answer your questions any more.
    $endgroup$
    – loup blanc
    Jan 31 at 0:03
















0












$begingroup$


Let $lambda in mathbb R^*$, $n ge 2$.



Let $A in M_n(mathbb R)$, $f$ the linear map defined by $A$.



Let $E_lambda (A^TA) = ker (A^TA - I_n)$ and $E_lambda (A^TA) = ker (AA^T - I_n)$.



Show that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim E_lambda (AA^T)$.



I started by showing that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$:



Let $tilde{f}$ be the restriction of $f$ on $E_lambda (A^TA)$.
We can prove that $tilde{f}$ is injective:



Let $x, x'$ such that $tilde{f}(x) = tilde{f}(x')$, then
$$Ax = Ax'$$
thus $$A^TAx = A^TAx'$$
$i.e$ $$lambda x = lambda x'$$
as $lambda ne 0$, $x=x'$ wich shows that $tilde{f}$ is injective.



We can also prove that $operatorname{Im} tilde{f} subset E_lambda (AA^T)$:



Let $y in operatorname{Im} tilde{f}$, there exists $x in E_lambda (A^TA)$ such that $y = Ax$, hence $$AA^T y = AA^T Ax = lambda Ax = lambda y.$$
Now, using Rank-Nullity theorem, we can write $$dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim operatorname{Im} tilde{f} le dim E_lambda (AA^T).$$



To finish, I would have to prove that $$dim E_lambda (A^TA) ge dim E_lambda (AA^T).$$



I can't figure out how to do it, any help would be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you proved $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$ you can simply swap $A$ and $A^T$ to get $dim E_lambda (AA^T) le dim E_lambda (A^TA)$...
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 27 at 10:32










  • $begingroup$
    Beware, $E_{lambda}(A^TA)=ker(A^TA-lambda I)$.
    $endgroup$
    – loup blanc
    Jan 27 at 16:06










  • $begingroup$
    I see that you have not corrected your statement (line 3)... On the other hand, if you have to assume that $lambdanot= 0$, then it's certainly because $A$ is not assumed to be square (otherwise the equality stands also for $lambda=0$). OK, I will not answer your questions any more.
    $endgroup$
    – loup blanc
    Jan 31 at 0:03














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $lambda in mathbb R^*$, $n ge 2$.



Let $A in M_n(mathbb R)$, $f$ the linear map defined by $A$.



Let $E_lambda (A^TA) = ker (A^TA - I_n)$ and $E_lambda (A^TA) = ker (AA^T - I_n)$.



Show that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim E_lambda (AA^T)$.



I started by showing that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$:



Let $tilde{f}$ be the restriction of $f$ on $E_lambda (A^TA)$.
We can prove that $tilde{f}$ is injective:



Let $x, x'$ such that $tilde{f}(x) = tilde{f}(x')$, then
$$Ax = Ax'$$
thus $$A^TAx = A^TAx'$$
$i.e$ $$lambda x = lambda x'$$
as $lambda ne 0$, $x=x'$ wich shows that $tilde{f}$ is injective.



We can also prove that $operatorname{Im} tilde{f} subset E_lambda (AA^T)$:



Let $y in operatorname{Im} tilde{f}$, there exists $x in E_lambda (A^TA)$ such that $y = Ax$, hence $$AA^T y = AA^T Ax = lambda Ax = lambda y.$$
Now, using Rank-Nullity theorem, we can write $$dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim operatorname{Im} tilde{f} le dim E_lambda (AA^T).$$



To finish, I would have to prove that $$dim E_lambda (A^TA) ge dim E_lambda (AA^T).$$



I can't figure out how to do it, any help would be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $lambda in mathbb R^*$, $n ge 2$.



Let $A in M_n(mathbb R)$, $f$ the linear map defined by $A$.



Let $E_lambda (A^TA) = ker (A^TA - I_n)$ and $E_lambda (A^TA) = ker (AA^T - I_n)$.



Show that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim E_lambda (AA^T)$.



I started by showing that $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$:



Let $tilde{f}$ be the restriction of $f$ on $E_lambda (A^TA)$.
We can prove that $tilde{f}$ is injective:



Let $x, x'$ such that $tilde{f}(x) = tilde{f}(x')$, then
$$Ax = Ax'$$
thus $$A^TAx = A^TAx'$$
$i.e$ $$lambda x = lambda x'$$
as $lambda ne 0$, $x=x'$ wich shows that $tilde{f}$ is injective.



We can also prove that $operatorname{Im} tilde{f} subset E_lambda (AA^T)$:



Let $y in operatorname{Im} tilde{f}$, there exists $x in E_lambda (A^TA)$ such that $y = Ax$, hence $$AA^T y = AA^T Ax = lambda Ax = lambda y.$$
Now, using Rank-Nullity theorem, we can write $$dim E_lambda (A^TA) = dim operatorname{Im} tilde{f} le dim E_lambda (AA^T).$$



To finish, I would have to prove that $$dim E_lambda (A^TA) ge dim E_lambda (AA^T).$$



I can't figure out how to do it, any help would be greatly appreciated.







linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 27 at 10:22







Euler Pythagoras

















asked Jan 27 at 9:48









Euler PythagorasEuler Pythagoras

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53512








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you proved $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$ you can simply swap $A$ and $A^T$ to get $dim E_lambda (AA^T) le dim E_lambda (A^TA)$...
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 27 at 10:32










  • $begingroup$
    Beware, $E_{lambda}(A^TA)=ker(A^TA-lambda I)$.
    $endgroup$
    – loup blanc
    Jan 27 at 16:06










  • $begingroup$
    I see that you have not corrected your statement (line 3)... On the other hand, if you have to assume that $lambdanot= 0$, then it's certainly because $A$ is not assumed to be square (otherwise the equality stands also for $lambda=0$). OK, I will not answer your questions any more.
    $endgroup$
    – loup blanc
    Jan 31 at 0:03














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you proved $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$ you can simply swap $A$ and $A^T$ to get $dim E_lambda (AA^T) le dim E_lambda (A^TA)$...
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 27 at 10:32










  • $begingroup$
    Beware, $E_{lambda}(A^TA)=ker(A^TA-lambda I)$.
    $endgroup$
    – loup blanc
    Jan 27 at 16:06










  • $begingroup$
    I see that you have not corrected your statement (line 3)... On the other hand, if you have to assume that $lambdanot= 0$, then it's certainly because $A$ is not assumed to be square (otherwise the equality stands also for $lambda=0$). OK, I will not answer your questions any more.
    $endgroup$
    – loup blanc
    Jan 31 at 0:03








1




1




$begingroup$
If you proved $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$ you can simply swap $A$ and $A^T$ to get $dim E_lambda (AA^T) le dim E_lambda (A^TA)$...
$endgroup$
– Gabriel Romon
Jan 27 at 10:32




$begingroup$
If you proved $dim E_lambda (A^TA) le dim E_lambda (AA^T)$ you can simply swap $A$ and $A^T$ to get $dim E_lambda (AA^T) le dim E_lambda (A^TA)$...
$endgroup$
– Gabriel Romon
Jan 27 at 10:32












$begingroup$
Beware, $E_{lambda}(A^TA)=ker(A^TA-lambda I)$.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Jan 27 at 16:06




$begingroup$
Beware, $E_{lambda}(A^TA)=ker(A^TA-lambda I)$.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Jan 27 at 16:06












$begingroup$
I see that you have not corrected your statement (line 3)... On the other hand, if you have to assume that $lambdanot= 0$, then it's certainly because $A$ is not assumed to be square (otherwise the equality stands also for $lambda=0$). OK, I will not answer your questions any more.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Jan 31 at 0:03




$begingroup$
I see that you have not corrected your statement (line 3)... On the other hand, if you have to assume that $lambdanot= 0$, then it's certainly because $A$ is not assumed to be square (otherwise the equality stands also for $lambda=0$). OK, I will not answer your questions any more.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Jan 31 at 0:03










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

$AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are real symmetric, then diagonalizable over $mathbb{R}$. Moreover $spectrum(AA^T)=spectrum(A^TA)$ (equality of lists).



Thus $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are similar over $mathbb{R}$.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    0












    $begingroup$

    $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are real symmetric, then diagonalizable over $mathbb{R}$. Moreover $spectrum(AA^T)=spectrum(A^TA)$ (equality of lists).



    Thus $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are similar over $mathbb{R}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are real symmetric, then diagonalizable over $mathbb{R}$. Moreover $spectrum(AA^T)=spectrum(A^TA)$ (equality of lists).



      Thus $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are similar over $mathbb{R}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are real symmetric, then diagonalizable over $mathbb{R}$. Moreover $spectrum(AA^T)=spectrum(A^TA)$ (equality of lists).



        Thus $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are similar over $mathbb{R}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are real symmetric, then diagonalizable over $mathbb{R}$. Moreover $spectrum(AA^T)=spectrum(A^TA)$ (equality of lists).



        Thus $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are similar over $mathbb{R}$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 27 at 16:04









        loup blancloup blanc

        24.1k21851




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