Connection between u-substitution change of limit and Riemann sum












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I worked with integration by $u$ substitution for a bit now, but I still have a hard time rationalizing why we change the limits of the integral when doing $u$ substitution (I know we don't have to change the limits, there is another way, but I'm not interested in that in this question).



I always think of the integral as the sum of infinite many rectangles under a curve (as an intuition.) Let's say we have the following more formal definition of a definite integral:



$$int_{{,a}}^{{,b}}{{fleft( x right),dx}} = mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } sumlimits_{i = 1}^n {fleft( {x_i^*} right)Delta x}
$$



I tried to bring this together with $u$ substitution, because I want to actually understand why we need to change the limits of the integral. Say we have:



$$int_{{,a}}^{{,b}}{{f(g(x))g'(x),dx}}$$



Let $u = g(x)$, then I think we have:



$$int_{{,g(a)}}^{{,g(b)}}{{f(u),du}} = mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } sumlimits_{i = 1}^n {fleft( {u_i^*} right)Delta u}$$



But what I don't understand is: what is the proper justification to change the limits of the integral that we change $int_{{a}}^{{b}}$ to $int_{{g(a)}}^{{g(b)}}$, and what effect does this have on the sum, the actual definition of the integral? Is there any connection to the Riemann sum?










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  • $begingroup$
    after solving the substituted integral $int f(u)du$ you need to backsubstitute $u$ which is expressed by chaning the limits accordingly
    $endgroup$
    – Zest
    Jan 27 at 8:51
















1












$begingroup$


I worked with integration by $u$ substitution for a bit now, but I still have a hard time rationalizing why we change the limits of the integral when doing $u$ substitution (I know we don't have to change the limits, there is another way, but I'm not interested in that in this question).



I always think of the integral as the sum of infinite many rectangles under a curve (as an intuition.) Let's say we have the following more formal definition of a definite integral:



$$int_{{,a}}^{{,b}}{{fleft( x right),dx}} = mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } sumlimits_{i = 1}^n {fleft( {x_i^*} right)Delta x}
$$



I tried to bring this together with $u$ substitution, because I want to actually understand why we need to change the limits of the integral. Say we have:



$$int_{{,a}}^{{,b}}{{f(g(x))g'(x),dx}}$$



Let $u = g(x)$, then I think we have:



$$int_{{,g(a)}}^{{,g(b)}}{{f(u),du}} = mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } sumlimits_{i = 1}^n {fleft( {u_i^*} right)Delta u}$$



But what I don't understand is: what is the proper justification to change the limits of the integral that we change $int_{{a}}^{{b}}$ to $int_{{g(a)}}^{{g(b)}}$, and what effect does this have on the sum, the actual definition of the integral? Is there any connection to the Riemann sum?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    after solving the substituted integral $int f(u)du$ you need to backsubstitute $u$ which is expressed by chaning the limits accordingly
    $endgroup$
    – Zest
    Jan 27 at 8:51














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I worked with integration by $u$ substitution for a bit now, but I still have a hard time rationalizing why we change the limits of the integral when doing $u$ substitution (I know we don't have to change the limits, there is another way, but I'm not interested in that in this question).



I always think of the integral as the sum of infinite many rectangles under a curve (as an intuition.) Let's say we have the following more formal definition of a definite integral:



$$int_{{,a}}^{{,b}}{{fleft( x right),dx}} = mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } sumlimits_{i = 1}^n {fleft( {x_i^*} right)Delta x}
$$



I tried to bring this together with $u$ substitution, because I want to actually understand why we need to change the limits of the integral. Say we have:



$$int_{{,a}}^{{,b}}{{f(g(x))g'(x),dx}}$$



Let $u = g(x)$, then I think we have:



$$int_{{,g(a)}}^{{,g(b)}}{{f(u),du}} = mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } sumlimits_{i = 1}^n {fleft( {u_i^*} right)Delta u}$$



But what I don't understand is: what is the proper justification to change the limits of the integral that we change $int_{{a}}^{{b}}$ to $int_{{g(a)}}^{{g(b)}}$, and what effect does this have on the sum, the actual definition of the integral? Is there any connection to the Riemann sum?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I worked with integration by $u$ substitution for a bit now, but I still have a hard time rationalizing why we change the limits of the integral when doing $u$ substitution (I know we don't have to change the limits, there is another way, but I'm not interested in that in this question).



I always think of the integral as the sum of infinite many rectangles under a curve (as an intuition.) Let's say we have the following more formal definition of a definite integral:



$$int_{{,a}}^{{,b}}{{fleft( x right),dx}} = mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } sumlimits_{i = 1}^n {fleft( {x_i^*} right)Delta x}
$$



I tried to bring this together with $u$ substitution, because I want to actually understand why we need to change the limits of the integral. Say we have:



$$int_{{,a}}^{{,b}}{{f(g(x))g'(x),dx}}$$



Let $u = g(x)$, then I think we have:



$$int_{{,g(a)}}^{{,g(b)}}{{f(u),du}} = mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } sumlimits_{i = 1}^n {fleft( {u_i^*} right)Delta u}$$



But what I don't understand is: what is the proper justification to change the limits of the integral that we change $int_{{a}}^{{b}}$ to $int_{{g(a)}}^{{g(b)}}$, and what effect does this have on the sum, the actual definition of the integral? Is there any connection to the Riemann sum?







calculus integration limits intuition riemann-integration






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asked Jan 27 at 8:45









MaxMax

674722




674722












  • $begingroup$
    after solving the substituted integral $int f(u)du$ you need to backsubstitute $u$ which is expressed by chaning the limits accordingly
    $endgroup$
    – Zest
    Jan 27 at 8:51


















  • $begingroup$
    after solving the substituted integral $int f(u)du$ you need to backsubstitute $u$ which is expressed by chaning the limits accordingly
    $endgroup$
    – Zest
    Jan 27 at 8:51
















$begingroup$
after solving the substituted integral $int f(u)du$ you need to backsubstitute $u$ which is expressed by chaning the limits accordingly
$endgroup$
– Zest
Jan 27 at 8:51




$begingroup$
after solving the substituted integral $int f(u)du$ you need to backsubstitute $u$ which is expressed by chaning the limits accordingly
$endgroup$
– Zest
Jan 27 at 8:51










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

The change-of-variables theorem can be proved under very weak assumptions about $f$ and $g$. However, a standard proof assumes that $g$ is continuously differentiable and uses the fundamental theorem of calculus. The theorem holds even if $g$ is not monotone (increasing or decreasing). We can even have $g(a) = g(b)$.



A proof along the lines of what you are suggesting requires an assumption that $g$ is monotone. We begin with a partition $a = x_0 < x_1 < ldots < x_n = b$ and form the sum



$$tag{*}S(P,fg')= sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(xi_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



where we use intermediate points $xi_j in [x_{j-1},x_j]$ and which will converge with refinement to $$int_a^bf(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



If $g$ is increasing then a partition $P'$ of $[g(a),g(b)]$ is naturally induced by



$$g(a) = g(x_0) < g(x_1) < ldots < g(x_n) = g(b),$$



and using the intermediate points $g(xi_j)$, we have a Riemann sum for the integral of $f$ over $[g(a),g(b)]$ taking the form



$$S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))(,g(x_j) - g(x_{j-1}),)$$



We need the monotonicity of $g$ to ensure that $g(xi_j) in [g(x_{j-1}), g(x_j)]$.



Applying the mean value theorem, there exist points $eta_j in (x_{j-1},x_j))$ such that



$$tag{**}S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(eta_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



Notice the similarity between the sums in (*) and (**). Aside from the distinction between $eta_j$ and $xi_j$, they are identical. Using the continuity (and uniform continuity) of $g'$ we can show that as the partition is refined and both $|P|, |P'| to 0$ we have



$$lim_{|P|| to 0}|S(P,fg') - S(P',f)| = 0$$



Therefore, $S(P',f)$ converges to both integrals and we have



$$lim_{|P'| to 0}S(P',f) = int_{g(a)}^{g(b)} f(u) , du = int_a^b f(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



Again, there are a number of ways to prove the change-of-variables theorem -- without the assumption that $g$ is monotone -- that avoid this association with Riemann sums. In the most general form only integrability and not continuity of $f$ and $g'$ is assumed.






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    $begingroup$

    The change-of-variables theorem can be proved under very weak assumptions about $f$ and $g$. However, a standard proof assumes that $g$ is continuously differentiable and uses the fundamental theorem of calculus. The theorem holds even if $g$ is not monotone (increasing or decreasing). We can even have $g(a) = g(b)$.



    A proof along the lines of what you are suggesting requires an assumption that $g$ is monotone. We begin with a partition $a = x_0 < x_1 < ldots < x_n = b$ and form the sum



    $$tag{*}S(P,fg')= sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(xi_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



    where we use intermediate points $xi_j in [x_{j-1},x_j]$ and which will converge with refinement to $$int_a^bf(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



    If $g$ is increasing then a partition $P'$ of $[g(a),g(b)]$ is naturally induced by



    $$g(a) = g(x_0) < g(x_1) < ldots < g(x_n) = g(b),$$



    and using the intermediate points $g(xi_j)$, we have a Riemann sum for the integral of $f$ over $[g(a),g(b)]$ taking the form



    $$S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))(,g(x_j) - g(x_{j-1}),)$$



    We need the monotonicity of $g$ to ensure that $g(xi_j) in [g(x_{j-1}), g(x_j)]$.



    Applying the mean value theorem, there exist points $eta_j in (x_{j-1},x_j))$ such that



    $$tag{**}S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(eta_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



    Notice the similarity between the sums in (*) and (**). Aside from the distinction between $eta_j$ and $xi_j$, they are identical. Using the continuity (and uniform continuity) of $g'$ we can show that as the partition is refined and both $|P|, |P'| to 0$ we have



    $$lim_{|P|| to 0}|S(P,fg') - S(P',f)| = 0$$



    Therefore, $S(P',f)$ converges to both integrals and we have



    $$lim_{|P'| to 0}S(P',f) = int_{g(a)}^{g(b)} f(u) , du = int_a^b f(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



    Again, there are a number of ways to prove the change-of-variables theorem -- without the assumption that $g$ is monotone -- that avoid this association with Riemann sums. In the most general form only integrability and not continuity of $f$ and $g'$ is assumed.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      3












      $begingroup$

      The change-of-variables theorem can be proved under very weak assumptions about $f$ and $g$. However, a standard proof assumes that $g$ is continuously differentiable and uses the fundamental theorem of calculus. The theorem holds even if $g$ is not monotone (increasing or decreasing). We can even have $g(a) = g(b)$.



      A proof along the lines of what you are suggesting requires an assumption that $g$ is monotone. We begin with a partition $a = x_0 < x_1 < ldots < x_n = b$ and form the sum



      $$tag{*}S(P,fg')= sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(xi_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



      where we use intermediate points $xi_j in [x_{j-1},x_j]$ and which will converge with refinement to $$int_a^bf(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



      If $g$ is increasing then a partition $P'$ of $[g(a),g(b)]$ is naturally induced by



      $$g(a) = g(x_0) < g(x_1) < ldots < g(x_n) = g(b),$$



      and using the intermediate points $g(xi_j)$, we have a Riemann sum for the integral of $f$ over $[g(a),g(b)]$ taking the form



      $$S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))(,g(x_j) - g(x_{j-1}),)$$



      We need the monotonicity of $g$ to ensure that $g(xi_j) in [g(x_{j-1}), g(x_j)]$.



      Applying the mean value theorem, there exist points $eta_j in (x_{j-1},x_j))$ such that



      $$tag{**}S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(eta_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



      Notice the similarity between the sums in (*) and (**). Aside from the distinction between $eta_j$ and $xi_j$, they are identical. Using the continuity (and uniform continuity) of $g'$ we can show that as the partition is refined and both $|P|, |P'| to 0$ we have



      $$lim_{|P|| to 0}|S(P,fg') - S(P',f)| = 0$$



      Therefore, $S(P',f)$ converges to both integrals and we have



      $$lim_{|P'| to 0}S(P',f) = int_{g(a)}^{g(b)} f(u) , du = int_a^b f(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



      Again, there are a number of ways to prove the change-of-variables theorem -- without the assumption that $g$ is monotone -- that avoid this association with Riemann sums. In the most general form only integrability and not continuity of $f$ and $g'$ is assumed.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        The change-of-variables theorem can be proved under very weak assumptions about $f$ and $g$. However, a standard proof assumes that $g$ is continuously differentiable and uses the fundamental theorem of calculus. The theorem holds even if $g$ is not monotone (increasing or decreasing). We can even have $g(a) = g(b)$.



        A proof along the lines of what you are suggesting requires an assumption that $g$ is monotone. We begin with a partition $a = x_0 < x_1 < ldots < x_n = b$ and form the sum



        $$tag{*}S(P,fg')= sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(xi_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



        where we use intermediate points $xi_j in [x_{j-1},x_j]$ and which will converge with refinement to $$int_a^bf(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



        If $g$ is increasing then a partition $P'$ of $[g(a),g(b)]$ is naturally induced by



        $$g(a) = g(x_0) < g(x_1) < ldots < g(x_n) = g(b),$$



        and using the intermediate points $g(xi_j)$, we have a Riemann sum for the integral of $f$ over $[g(a),g(b)]$ taking the form



        $$S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))(,g(x_j) - g(x_{j-1}),)$$



        We need the monotonicity of $g$ to ensure that $g(xi_j) in [g(x_{j-1}), g(x_j)]$.



        Applying the mean value theorem, there exist points $eta_j in (x_{j-1},x_j))$ such that



        $$tag{**}S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(eta_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



        Notice the similarity between the sums in (*) and (**). Aside from the distinction between $eta_j$ and $xi_j$, they are identical. Using the continuity (and uniform continuity) of $g'$ we can show that as the partition is refined and both $|P|, |P'| to 0$ we have



        $$lim_{|P|| to 0}|S(P,fg') - S(P',f)| = 0$$



        Therefore, $S(P',f)$ converges to both integrals and we have



        $$lim_{|P'| to 0}S(P',f) = int_{g(a)}^{g(b)} f(u) , du = int_a^b f(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



        Again, there are a number of ways to prove the change-of-variables theorem -- without the assumption that $g$ is monotone -- that avoid this association with Riemann sums. In the most general form only integrability and not continuity of $f$ and $g'$ is assumed.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The change-of-variables theorem can be proved under very weak assumptions about $f$ and $g$. However, a standard proof assumes that $g$ is continuously differentiable and uses the fundamental theorem of calculus. The theorem holds even if $g$ is not monotone (increasing or decreasing). We can even have $g(a) = g(b)$.



        A proof along the lines of what you are suggesting requires an assumption that $g$ is monotone. We begin with a partition $a = x_0 < x_1 < ldots < x_n = b$ and form the sum



        $$tag{*}S(P,fg')= sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(xi_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



        where we use intermediate points $xi_j in [x_{j-1},x_j]$ and which will converge with refinement to $$int_a^bf(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



        If $g$ is increasing then a partition $P'$ of $[g(a),g(b)]$ is naturally induced by



        $$g(a) = g(x_0) < g(x_1) < ldots < g(x_n) = g(b),$$



        and using the intermediate points $g(xi_j)$, we have a Riemann sum for the integral of $f$ over $[g(a),g(b)]$ taking the form



        $$S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))(,g(x_j) - g(x_{j-1}),)$$



        We need the monotonicity of $g$ to ensure that $g(xi_j) in [g(x_{j-1}), g(x_j)]$.



        Applying the mean value theorem, there exist points $eta_j in (x_{j-1},x_j))$ such that



        $$tag{**}S(P',f) = sum_{j=1}^n f(g(xi_j))g'(eta_j)(x_j - x_{j-1})$$



        Notice the similarity between the sums in (*) and (**). Aside from the distinction between $eta_j$ and $xi_j$, they are identical. Using the continuity (and uniform continuity) of $g'$ we can show that as the partition is refined and both $|P|, |P'| to 0$ we have



        $$lim_{|P|| to 0}|S(P,fg') - S(P',f)| = 0$$



        Therefore, $S(P',f)$ converges to both integrals and we have



        $$lim_{|P'| to 0}S(P',f) = int_{g(a)}^{g(b)} f(u) , du = int_a^b f(g(x)) g'(x) , dx$$



        Again, there are a number of ways to prove the change-of-variables theorem -- without the assumption that $g$ is monotone -- that avoid this association with Riemann sums. In the most general form only integrability and not continuity of $f$ and $g'$ is assumed.







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        edited Jan 27 at 10:04

























        answered Jan 27 at 9:47









        RRLRRL

        53k42573




        53k42573






























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