Mobius transform |z|<1 to the right half plane












0












$begingroup$



Find a Mobius transformation mapping the unit disk {|z| < 1} into the right half-plane and taking z = −i to the origin.




My workings:
$phi(t) = frac{az+b}{cz+d}$



We map -i to the origin (0) by taking the numerator and equating it to 0, knowing b = +i (since we started at -i).



That is:
$az+i=0 implies i = b, a = 1$, which is correct.



However, how do we map $|z|$ to the upper right half plane (i.e. Re(w) = 0)?



Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$



    Find a Mobius transformation mapping the unit disk {|z| < 1} into the right half-plane and taking z = −i to the origin.




    My workings:
    $phi(t) = frac{az+b}{cz+d}$



    We map -i to the origin (0) by taking the numerator and equating it to 0, knowing b = +i (since we started at -i).



    That is:
    $az+i=0 implies i = b, a = 1$, which is correct.



    However, how do we map $|z|$ to the upper right half plane (i.e. Re(w) = 0)?



    Thanks.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      Find a Mobius transformation mapping the unit disk {|z| < 1} into the right half-plane and taking z = −i to the origin.




      My workings:
      $phi(t) = frac{az+b}{cz+d}$



      We map -i to the origin (0) by taking the numerator and equating it to 0, knowing b = +i (since we started at -i).



      That is:
      $az+i=0 implies i = b, a = 1$, which is correct.



      However, how do we map $|z|$ to the upper right half plane (i.e. Re(w) = 0)?



      Thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Find a Mobius transformation mapping the unit disk {|z| < 1} into the right half-plane and taking z = −i to the origin.




      My workings:
      $phi(t) = frac{az+b}{cz+d}$



      We map -i to the origin (0) by taking the numerator and equating it to 0, knowing b = +i (since we started at -i).



      That is:
      $az+i=0 implies i = b, a = 1$, which is correct.



      However, how do we map $|z|$ to the upper right half plane (i.e. Re(w) = 0)?



      Thanks.







      complex-analysis mobius-transformation






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      edited Jan 27 at 6:37









      Kavi Rama Murthy

      69.4k53170




      69.4k53170










      asked Jan 27 at 4:52









      Dr.DoofusDr.Doofus

      12612




      12612






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          Watch that first step: $-ai+b=0implies b=ai$. Let's have $-1to i$, so that $-a+ai=i(-c+d)$. And $0to1$, giving $b=d$. So $c=-a$.



          So, we get $f(z)=frac{az+ai}{-az+ai}$ or $boxed{f(z)=frac{z+i}{i-z}}$.



          By specifying the values at $3$ points, the Möbius transformation is determined.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Correct answer. Can you elaborate on why you said "let's have -1 -> i? And how did you choose -1?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 7:31






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            $-1$ is another point on $mid zmid=1$ (besides $-i$), and I wish to move it onto the $y$-axis.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Custer
            Jan 27 at 7:34



















          0












          $begingroup$

          It is $frac {1-iz} {1+iz}$. Multiply numerator and denominator by $1-ioverline {z}$ to prove that this works.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            You said upper half plane in the title and right half plane in the question. I have taken it as right half plane.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 5:11










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, thanks for spotting that. I've edited the question title. In regards to your answer, how do you get that value?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 6:09










          • $begingroup$
            You can start with $1-iz$ in the numerator so that it vanishes at $-i$. Take denominator as $a+bz$, multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator. You then want the real part of the numerator to be positive when $|z| <1$. It should be easy to guess what $a$ and $b$ should be.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 6:36











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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          Watch that first step: $-ai+b=0implies b=ai$. Let's have $-1to i$, so that $-a+ai=i(-c+d)$. And $0to1$, giving $b=d$. So $c=-a$.



          So, we get $f(z)=frac{az+ai}{-az+ai}$ or $boxed{f(z)=frac{z+i}{i-z}}$.



          By specifying the values at $3$ points, the Möbius transformation is determined.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Correct answer. Can you elaborate on why you said "let's have -1 -> i? And how did you choose -1?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 7:31






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            $-1$ is another point on $mid zmid=1$ (besides $-i$), and I wish to move it onto the $y$-axis.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Custer
            Jan 27 at 7:34
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Watch that first step: $-ai+b=0implies b=ai$. Let's have $-1to i$, so that $-a+ai=i(-c+d)$. And $0to1$, giving $b=d$. So $c=-a$.



          So, we get $f(z)=frac{az+ai}{-az+ai}$ or $boxed{f(z)=frac{z+i}{i-z}}$.



          By specifying the values at $3$ points, the Möbius transformation is determined.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Correct answer. Can you elaborate on why you said "let's have -1 -> i? And how did you choose -1?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 7:31






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            $-1$ is another point on $mid zmid=1$ (besides $-i$), and I wish to move it onto the $y$-axis.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Custer
            Jan 27 at 7:34














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Watch that first step: $-ai+b=0implies b=ai$. Let's have $-1to i$, so that $-a+ai=i(-c+d)$. And $0to1$, giving $b=d$. So $c=-a$.



          So, we get $f(z)=frac{az+ai}{-az+ai}$ or $boxed{f(z)=frac{z+i}{i-z}}$.



          By specifying the values at $3$ points, the Möbius transformation is determined.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Watch that first step: $-ai+b=0implies b=ai$. Let's have $-1to i$, so that $-a+ai=i(-c+d)$. And $0to1$, giving $b=d$. So $c=-a$.



          So, we get $f(z)=frac{az+ai}{-az+ai}$ or $boxed{f(z)=frac{z+i}{i-z}}$.



          By specifying the values at $3$ points, the Möbius transformation is determined.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 27 at 6:41









          Chris CusterChris Custer

          14.2k3827




          14.2k3827












          • $begingroup$
            Correct answer. Can you elaborate on why you said "let's have -1 -> i? And how did you choose -1?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 7:31






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            $-1$ is another point on $mid zmid=1$ (besides $-i$), and I wish to move it onto the $y$-axis.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Custer
            Jan 27 at 7:34


















          • $begingroup$
            Correct answer. Can you elaborate on why you said "let's have -1 -> i? And how did you choose -1?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 7:31






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            $-1$ is another point on $mid zmid=1$ (besides $-i$), and I wish to move it onto the $y$-axis.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Custer
            Jan 27 at 7:34
















          $begingroup$
          Correct answer. Can you elaborate on why you said "let's have -1 -> i? And how did you choose -1?
          $endgroup$
          – Dr.Doofus
          Jan 27 at 7:31




          $begingroup$
          Correct answer. Can you elaborate on why you said "let's have -1 -> i? And how did you choose -1?
          $endgroup$
          – Dr.Doofus
          Jan 27 at 7:31




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          $-1$ is another point on $mid zmid=1$ (besides $-i$), and I wish to move it onto the $y$-axis.
          $endgroup$
          – Chris Custer
          Jan 27 at 7:34




          $begingroup$
          $-1$ is another point on $mid zmid=1$ (besides $-i$), and I wish to move it onto the $y$-axis.
          $endgroup$
          – Chris Custer
          Jan 27 at 7:34











          0












          $begingroup$

          It is $frac {1-iz} {1+iz}$. Multiply numerator and denominator by $1-ioverline {z}$ to prove that this works.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            You said upper half plane in the title and right half plane in the question. I have taken it as right half plane.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 5:11










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, thanks for spotting that. I've edited the question title. In regards to your answer, how do you get that value?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 6:09










          • $begingroup$
            You can start with $1-iz$ in the numerator so that it vanishes at $-i$. Take denominator as $a+bz$, multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator. You then want the real part of the numerator to be positive when $|z| <1$. It should be easy to guess what $a$ and $b$ should be.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 6:36
















          0












          $begingroup$

          It is $frac {1-iz} {1+iz}$. Multiply numerator and denominator by $1-ioverline {z}$ to prove that this works.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            You said upper half plane in the title and right half plane in the question. I have taken it as right half plane.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 5:11










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, thanks for spotting that. I've edited the question title. In regards to your answer, how do you get that value?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 6:09










          • $begingroup$
            You can start with $1-iz$ in the numerator so that it vanishes at $-i$. Take denominator as $a+bz$, multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator. You then want the real part of the numerator to be positive when $|z| <1$. It should be easy to guess what $a$ and $b$ should be.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 6:36














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          It is $frac {1-iz} {1+iz}$. Multiply numerator and denominator by $1-ioverline {z}$ to prove that this works.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          It is $frac {1-iz} {1+iz}$. Multiply numerator and denominator by $1-ioverline {z}$ to prove that this works.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 27 at 5:09









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          69.4k53170




          69.4k53170








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            You said upper half plane in the title and right half plane in the question. I have taken it as right half plane.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 5:11










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, thanks for spotting that. I've edited the question title. In regards to your answer, how do you get that value?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 6:09










          • $begingroup$
            You can start with $1-iz$ in the numerator so that it vanishes at $-i$. Take denominator as $a+bz$, multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator. You then want the real part of the numerator to be positive when $|z| <1$. It should be easy to guess what $a$ and $b$ should be.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 6:36














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            You said upper half plane in the title and right half plane in the question. I have taken it as right half plane.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 5:11










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, thanks for spotting that. I've edited the question title. In regards to your answer, how do you get that value?
            $endgroup$
            – Dr.Doofus
            Jan 27 at 6:09










          • $begingroup$
            You can start with $1-iz$ in the numerator so that it vanishes at $-i$. Take denominator as $a+bz$, multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator. You then want the real part of the numerator to be positive when $|z| <1$. It should be easy to guess what $a$ and $b$ should be.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 27 at 6:36








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          You said upper half plane in the title and right half plane in the question. I have taken it as right half plane.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 27 at 5:11




          $begingroup$
          You said upper half plane in the title and right half plane in the question. I have taken it as right half plane.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 27 at 5:11












          $begingroup$
          Yes, thanks for spotting that. I've edited the question title. In regards to your answer, how do you get that value?
          $endgroup$
          – Dr.Doofus
          Jan 27 at 6:09




          $begingroup$
          Yes, thanks for spotting that. I've edited the question title. In regards to your answer, how do you get that value?
          $endgroup$
          – Dr.Doofus
          Jan 27 at 6:09












          $begingroup$
          You can start with $1-iz$ in the numerator so that it vanishes at $-i$. Take denominator as $a+bz$, multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator. You then want the real part of the numerator to be positive when $|z| <1$. It should be easy to guess what $a$ and $b$ should be.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 27 at 6:36




          $begingroup$
          You can start with $1-iz$ in the numerator so that it vanishes at $-i$. Take denominator as $a+bz$, multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator. You then want the real part of the numerator to be positive when $|z| <1$. It should be easy to guess what $a$ and $b$ should be.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 27 at 6:36


















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