Composition of solutions to ODE on a manifold












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I don't understand lemma 1.4.7 page 18 of this introduction to differential geometry (https://www.math.ens.fr/~biquard/idg2008.pdf).



$varphi_{t}left ( {x} right )$ is a solution to the ordinary differential equation $dot{c}= {X}left ( c right )$ with initial condition ${x}$, ${X}$ being a vector field on a manifold ${M}$ .



enter image description here



I don't understand this composition and must be confused. How would this composition work for $dot{x^{i}}={e^{t}}$










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I don't understand lemma 1.4.7 page 18 of this introduction to differential geometry (https://www.math.ens.fr/~biquard/idg2008.pdf).



    $varphi_{t}left ( {x} right )$ is a solution to the ordinary differential equation $dot{c}= {X}left ( c right )$ with initial condition ${x}$, ${X}$ being a vector field on a manifold ${M}$ .



    enter image description here



    I don't understand this composition and must be confused. How would this composition work for $dot{x^{i}}={e^{t}}$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I don't understand lemma 1.4.7 page 18 of this introduction to differential geometry (https://www.math.ens.fr/~biquard/idg2008.pdf).



      $varphi_{t}left ( {x} right )$ is a solution to the ordinary differential equation $dot{c}= {X}left ( c right )$ with initial condition ${x}$, ${X}$ being a vector field on a manifold ${M}$ .



      enter image description here



      I don't understand this composition and must be confused. How would this composition work for $dot{x^{i}}={e^{t}}$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I don't understand lemma 1.4.7 page 18 of this introduction to differential geometry (https://www.math.ens.fr/~biquard/idg2008.pdf).



      $varphi_{t}left ( {x} right )$ is a solution to the ordinary differential equation $dot{c}= {X}left ( c right )$ with initial condition ${x}$, ${X}$ being a vector field on a manifold ${M}$ .



      enter image description here



      I don't understand this composition and must be confused. How would this composition work for $dot{x^{i}}={e^{t}}$







      ordinary-differential-equations differential-geometry manifolds






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 29 at 10:51







      Clipper

















      asked Jan 28 at 22:27









      ClipperClipper

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          $begingroup$

          This is a easy consequence of the Picard-Lindölf theorem.



          Notice that $tmapstovarphi_{t+s}(x)$ is solution of the following Cauchy problem:
          $$dot{c}=X(c),c(0)=varphi_s(x),$$
          but by definition $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is also a solution, whence the equality.



          The claim is true only for time-independent vector-field!



          Regarding the example, the equation is not the one you wrote $dot{x^i}=e^t$, but rather ${dot{x^i}}=x^i$, since the vector field is given by $X=(x_1,ldots,x_n)$ and not by $X=(e^t,ldots,e^t)$ which is not time-independent.



          In this case, the flow is given by $varphicolon (x,t)mapsto e^tx$, since $tmapsto e^tx$ satisfies $dot{x^i}=x^i$ and has value $x$ at $t=0$. You can check that $varphi(x,t+s)=e^{t+s}x=e^t(e^sx)=e^tvarphi(x,s)=varphi(varphi(s,x),t)$, as claimed.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Merci ! It's much clearer. I guess you meant only true for time-independent vector-field ? I'm still not sure about which definition you used to state that $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is a solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Clipper
            Jan 29 at 19:20










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, indeed, for time INdependent vector field, thank you! By definition, $ccolon tmapstovarphi_t(x)$ satisfies $dot{c}=X(c)$ and $c(0)=x$, now use this for $x=varphi_s(x)$, $s$ is fixed.
            $endgroup$
            – C. Falcon
            Jan 29 at 20:08














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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          This is a easy consequence of the Picard-Lindölf theorem.



          Notice that $tmapstovarphi_{t+s}(x)$ is solution of the following Cauchy problem:
          $$dot{c}=X(c),c(0)=varphi_s(x),$$
          but by definition $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is also a solution, whence the equality.



          The claim is true only for time-independent vector-field!



          Regarding the example, the equation is not the one you wrote $dot{x^i}=e^t$, but rather ${dot{x^i}}=x^i$, since the vector field is given by $X=(x_1,ldots,x_n)$ and not by $X=(e^t,ldots,e^t)$ which is not time-independent.



          In this case, the flow is given by $varphicolon (x,t)mapsto e^tx$, since $tmapsto e^tx$ satisfies $dot{x^i}=x^i$ and has value $x$ at $t=0$. You can check that $varphi(x,t+s)=e^{t+s}x=e^t(e^sx)=e^tvarphi(x,s)=varphi(varphi(s,x),t)$, as claimed.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Merci ! It's much clearer. I guess you meant only true for time-independent vector-field ? I'm still not sure about which definition you used to state that $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is a solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Clipper
            Jan 29 at 19:20










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, indeed, for time INdependent vector field, thank you! By definition, $ccolon tmapstovarphi_t(x)$ satisfies $dot{c}=X(c)$ and $c(0)=x$, now use this for $x=varphi_s(x)$, $s$ is fixed.
            $endgroup$
            – C. Falcon
            Jan 29 at 20:08


















          1












          $begingroup$

          This is a easy consequence of the Picard-Lindölf theorem.



          Notice that $tmapstovarphi_{t+s}(x)$ is solution of the following Cauchy problem:
          $$dot{c}=X(c),c(0)=varphi_s(x),$$
          but by definition $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is also a solution, whence the equality.



          The claim is true only for time-independent vector-field!



          Regarding the example, the equation is not the one you wrote $dot{x^i}=e^t$, but rather ${dot{x^i}}=x^i$, since the vector field is given by $X=(x_1,ldots,x_n)$ and not by $X=(e^t,ldots,e^t)$ which is not time-independent.



          In this case, the flow is given by $varphicolon (x,t)mapsto e^tx$, since $tmapsto e^tx$ satisfies $dot{x^i}=x^i$ and has value $x$ at $t=0$. You can check that $varphi(x,t+s)=e^{t+s}x=e^t(e^sx)=e^tvarphi(x,s)=varphi(varphi(s,x),t)$, as claimed.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Merci ! It's much clearer. I guess you meant only true for time-independent vector-field ? I'm still not sure about which definition you used to state that $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is a solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Clipper
            Jan 29 at 19:20










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, indeed, for time INdependent vector field, thank you! By definition, $ccolon tmapstovarphi_t(x)$ satisfies $dot{c}=X(c)$ and $c(0)=x$, now use this for $x=varphi_s(x)$, $s$ is fixed.
            $endgroup$
            – C. Falcon
            Jan 29 at 20:08
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          This is a easy consequence of the Picard-Lindölf theorem.



          Notice that $tmapstovarphi_{t+s}(x)$ is solution of the following Cauchy problem:
          $$dot{c}=X(c),c(0)=varphi_s(x),$$
          but by definition $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is also a solution, whence the equality.



          The claim is true only for time-independent vector-field!



          Regarding the example, the equation is not the one you wrote $dot{x^i}=e^t$, but rather ${dot{x^i}}=x^i$, since the vector field is given by $X=(x_1,ldots,x_n)$ and not by $X=(e^t,ldots,e^t)$ which is not time-independent.



          In this case, the flow is given by $varphicolon (x,t)mapsto e^tx$, since $tmapsto e^tx$ satisfies $dot{x^i}=x^i$ and has value $x$ at $t=0$. You can check that $varphi(x,t+s)=e^{t+s}x=e^t(e^sx)=e^tvarphi(x,s)=varphi(varphi(s,x),t)$, as claimed.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          This is a easy consequence of the Picard-Lindölf theorem.



          Notice that $tmapstovarphi_{t+s}(x)$ is solution of the following Cauchy problem:
          $$dot{c}=X(c),c(0)=varphi_s(x),$$
          but by definition $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is also a solution, whence the equality.



          The claim is true only for time-independent vector-field!



          Regarding the example, the equation is not the one you wrote $dot{x^i}=e^t$, but rather ${dot{x^i}}=x^i$, since the vector field is given by $X=(x_1,ldots,x_n)$ and not by $X=(e^t,ldots,e^t)$ which is not time-independent.



          In this case, the flow is given by $varphicolon (x,t)mapsto e^tx$, since $tmapsto e^tx$ satisfies $dot{x^i}=x^i$ and has value $x$ at $t=0$. You can check that $varphi(x,t+s)=e^{t+s}x=e^t(e^sx)=e^tvarphi(x,s)=varphi(varphi(s,x),t)$, as claimed.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 29 at 20:07

























          answered Jan 29 at 13:14









          C. FalconC. Falcon

          15.3k41951




          15.3k41951












          • $begingroup$
            Merci ! It's much clearer. I guess you meant only true for time-independent vector-field ? I'm still not sure about which definition you used to state that $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is a solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Clipper
            Jan 29 at 19:20










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, indeed, for time INdependent vector field, thank you! By definition, $ccolon tmapstovarphi_t(x)$ satisfies $dot{c}=X(c)$ and $c(0)=x$, now use this for $x=varphi_s(x)$, $s$ is fixed.
            $endgroup$
            – C. Falcon
            Jan 29 at 20:08




















          • $begingroup$
            Merci ! It's much clearer. I guess you meant only true for time-independent vector-field ? I'm still not sure about which definition you used to state that $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is a solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Clipper
            Jan 29 at 19:20










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, indeed, for time INdependent vector field, thank you! By definition, $ccolon tmapstovarphi_t(x)$ satisfies $dot{c}=X(c)$ and $c(0)=x$, now use this for $x=varphi_s(x)$, $s$ is fixed.
            $endgroup$
            – C. Falcon
            Jan 29 at 20:08


















          $begingroup$
          Merci ! It's much clearer. I guess you meant only true for time-independent vector-field ? I'm still not sure about which definition you used to state that $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is a solution.
          $endgroup$
          – Clipper
          Jan 29 at 19:20




          $begingroup$
          Merci ! It's much clearer. I guess you meant only true for time-independent vector-field ? I'm still not sure about which definition you used to state that $tmapstovarphi_t(varphi_s(x))$ is a solution.
          $endgroup$
          – Clipper
          Jan 29 at 19:20












          $begingroup$
          Yes, indeed, for time INdependent vector field, thank you! By definition, $ccolon tmapstovarphi_t(x)$ satisfies $dot{c}=X(c)$ and $c(0)=x$, now use this for $x=varphi_s(x)$, $s$ is fixed.
          $endgroup$
          – C. Falcon
          Jan 29 at 20:08






          $begingroup$
          Yes, indeed, for time INdependent vector field, thank you! By definition, $ccolon tmapstovarphi_t(x)$ satisfies $dot{c}=X(c)$ and $c(0)=x$, now use this for $x=varphi_s(x)$, $s$ is fixed.
          $endgroup$
          – C. Falcon
          Jan 29 at 20:08




















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