Product of a compact topological space and a singleton in another topological space is compact proof












0












$begingroup$


It's before we prove that 'Product of two compact sets is compact'. There are topological spaces $X$(which is compact), $Y$ and the product topology on $X times Y$ is given by the subbase $U times V$ where $U$ is open in $X$ and $V$ is open in $Y$. Pick an element $bullet in Y$. Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$. Then $pi_1(S)$ is an open cover of $X$ so there is a finite subcover then pick one $A_n$ from $S$ corresponding to each $pi_1(A_n)$ but I think it may not cover $X times {bullet}$. How to complete the proof? For example let $Y$ be a $T_1$ space and pick another element $bulletbullet in Y$. There exists an open set $W$ containing $bulletbullet$ but not
$bullet$. Lets construct an open cover of $X times {bullet}$
$$S cup {B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$$
Now we can apply this open cover to upper proof, and when we are picking $A_n$ from $S cup {B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$ corresponding to each $pi_1(A_n)$, we may pick all the sets from ${B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$ so in fact it doesn't cover $X times {bullet}$. Am I misunderstanding something?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    It's before we prove that 'Product of two compact sets is compact'. There are topological spaces $X$(which is compact), $Y$ and the product topology on $X times Y$ is given by the subbase $U times V$ where $U$ is open in $X$ and $V$ is open in $Y$. Pick an element $bullet in Y$. Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$. Then $pi_1(S)$ is an open cover of $X$ so there is a finite subcover then pick one $A_n$ from $S$ corresponding to each $pi_1(A_n)$ but I think it may not cover $X times {bullet}$. How to complete the proof? For example let $Y$ be a $T_1$ space and pick another element $bulletbullet in Y$. There exists an open set $W$ containing $bulletbullet$ but not
    $bullet$. Lets construct an open cover of $X times {bullet}$
    $$S cup {B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$$
    Now we can apply this open cover to upper proof, and when we are picking $A_n$ from $S cup {B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$ corresponding to each $pi_1(A_n)$, we may pick all the sets from ${B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$ so in fact it doesn't cover $X times {bullet}$. Am I misunderstanding something?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      It's before we prove that 'Product of two compact sets is compact'. There are topological spaces $X$(which is compact), $Y$ and the product topology on $X times Y$ is given by the subbase $U times V$ where $U$ is open in $X$ and $V$ is open in $Y$. Pick an element $bullet in Y$. Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$. Then $pi_1(S)$ is an open cover of $X$ so there is a finite subcover then pick one $A_n$ from $S$ corresponding to each $pi_1(A_n)$ but I think it may not cover $X times {bullet}$. How to complete the proof? For example let $Y$ be a $T_1$ space and pick another element $bulletbullet in Y$. There exists an open set $W$ containing $bulletbullet$ but not
      $bullet$. Lets construct an open cover of $X times {bullet}$
      $$S cup {B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$$
      Now we can apply this open cover to upper proof, and when we are picking $A_n$ from $S cup {B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$ corresponding to each $pi_1(A_n)$, we may pick all the sets from ${B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$ so in fact it doesn't cover $X times {bullet}$. Am I misunderstanding something?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      It's before we prove that 'Product of two compact sets is compact'. There are topological spaces $X$(which is compact), $Y$ and the product topology on $X times Y$ is given by the subbase $U times V$ where $U$ is open in $X$ and $V$ is open in $Y$. Pick an element $bullet in Y$. Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$. Then $pi_1(S)$ is an open cover of $X$ so there is a finite subcover then pick one $A_n$ from $S$ corresponding to each $pi_1(A_n)$ but I think it may not cover $X times {bullet}$. How to complete the proof? For example let $Y$ be a $T_1$ space and pick another element $bulletbullet in Y$. There exists an open set $W$ containing $bulletbullet$ but not
      $bullet$. Lets construct an open cover of $X times {bullet}$
      $$S cup {B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$$
      Now we can apply this open cover to upper proof, and when we are picking $A_n$ from $S cup {B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$ corresponding to each $pi_1(A_n)$, we may pick all the sets from ${B times W mid B in pi_1(S)}$ so in fact it doesn't cover $X times {bullet}$. Am I misunderstanding something?







      general-topology compactness product-space






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 27 at 1:21







      Ris

















      asked Jan 27 at 1:15









      RisRis

      397




      397






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          0












          $begingroup$

          There are two possible interpretations of the sentence "Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$":




          1. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times Y$ which cover $X times {bullet}$. In this case, you must be careful how you proceed, for the reason that you have observed.


          2. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times {bullet}$ which cover $X times {bullet}$, where $X times {bullet}$ is given the subspace topology of $X times Y$. In this case, you can simply observe that $pi_1: X times {bullet} to X$ is a homeomorphism, and the proof you've described works perfectly.



          In the case that you are using version 1, observe that the intersection of an open subset of $X times Y$ with $X times {bullet}$ forms an open subset of $X times {bullet}$, which projects under $pi_1$. onto an open subset of $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why is it an open subset? Perhaps from compactness of $X$? If we intersect an open disk in $mathbb{R}^2$ with a line $mathbb{R} times {bullet}$ it results in something like an open interval but it is not an open set of course. But $mathbb{R}$ is not compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 4:53












          • $begingroup$
            Actually there exists a closed square centered at the origin containing the open disk so we can replace $mathbb{R}$ with a closed interval $I$.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 5:04












          • $begingroup$
            @Ris it is literally the definition of the subspace topology that an open subset of $X times Y$ intersected with $X times {bullet}$ is an open subset of $X times {bullet}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:25










          • $begingroup$
            If you want to avoid using the subspace topology, just prove that $pi_1(U cap X times {bullet}) subset X$ is open for $U subset X times Y$ open.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:28










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I thought that it meant to be the subset which is open in $X times Y$. Does the term "open subset of $A$" always refer to an open set of the subspace topology on $A$? I was always confused of that.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 28 at 3:59













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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

          oldest

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          0












          $begingroup$

          There are two possible interpretations of the sentence "Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$":




          1. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times Y$ which cover $X times {bullet}$. In this case, you must be careful how you proceed, for the reason that you have observed.


          2. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times {bullet}$ which cover $X times {bullet}$, where $X times {bullet}$ is given the subspace topology of $X times Y$. In this case, you can simply observe that $pi_1: X times {bullet} to X$ is a homeomorphism, and the proof you've described works perfectly.



          In the case that you are using version 1, observe that the intersection of an open subset of $X times Y$ with $X times {bullet}$ forms an open subset of $X times {bullet}$, which projects under $pi_1$. onto an open subset of $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why is it an open subset? Perhaps from compactness of $X$? If we intersect an open disk in $mathbb{R}^2$ with a line $mathbb{R} times {bullet}$ it results in something like an open interval but it is not an open set of course. But $mathbb{R}$ is not compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 4:53












          • $begingroup$
            Actually there exists a closed square centered at the origin containing the open disk so we can replace $mathbb{R}$ with a closed interval $I$.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 5:04












          • $begingroup$
            @Ris it is literally the definition of the subspace topology that an open subset of $X times Y$ intersected with $X times {bullet}$ is an open subset of $X times {bullet}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:25










          • $begingroup$
            If you want to avoid using the subspace topology, just prove that $pi_1(U cap X times {bullet}) subset X$ is open for $U subset X times Y$ open.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:28










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I thought that it meant to be the subset which is open in $X times Y$. Does the term "open subset of $A$" always refer to an open set of the subspace topology on $A$? I was always confused of that.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 28 at 3:59


















          0












          $begingroup$

          There are two possible interpretations of the sentence "Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$":




          1. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times Y$ which cover $X times {bullet}$. In this case, you must be careful how you proceed, for the reason that you have observed.


          2. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times {bullet}$ which cover $X times {bullet}$, where $X times {bullet}$ is given the subspace topology of $X times Y$. In this case, you can simply observe that $pi_1: X times {bullet} to X$ is a homeomorphism, and the proof you've described works perfectly.



          In the case that you are using version 1, observe that the intersection of an open subset of $X times Y$ with $X times {bullet}$ forms an open subset of $X times {bullet}$, which projects under $pi_1$. onto an open subset of $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why is it an open subset? Perhaps from compactness of $X$? If we intersect an open disk in $mathbb{R}^2$ with a line $mathbb{R} times {bullet}$ it results in something like an open interval but it is not an open set of course. But $mathbb{R}$ is not compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 4:53












          • $begingroup$
            Actually there exists a closed square centered at the origin containing the open disk so we can replace $mathbb{R}$ with a closed interval $I$.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 5:04












          • $begingroup$
            @Ris it is literally the definition of the subspace topology that an open subset of $X times Y$ intersected with $X times {bullet}$ is an open subset of $X times {bullet}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:25










          • $begingroup$
            If you want to avoid using the subspace topology, just prove that $pi_1(U cap X times {bullet}) subset X$ is open for $U subset X times Y$ open.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:28










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I thought that it meant to be the subset which is open in $X times Y$. Does the term "open subset of $A$" always refer to an open set of the subspace topology on $A$? I was always confused of that.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 28 at 3:59
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          There are two possible interpretations of the sentence "Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$":




          1. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times Y$ which cover $X times {bullet}$. In this case, you must be careful how you proceed, for the reason that you have observed.


          2. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times {bullet}$ which cover $X times {bullet}$, where $X times {bullet}$ is given the subspace topology of $X times Y$. In this case, you can simply observe that $pi_1: X times {bullet} to X$ is a homeomorphism, and the proof you've described works perfectly.



          In the case that you are using version 1, observe that the intersection of an open subset of $X times Y$ with $X times {bullet}$ forms an open subset of $X times {bullet}$, which projects under $pi_1$. onto an open subset of $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          There are two possible interpretations of the sentence "Let $S$ be an open cover of $X times {bullet}$":




          1. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times Y$ which cover $X times {bullet}$. In this case, you must be careful how you proceed, for the reason that you have observed.


          2. Let $S$ be a collection of open subsets of $X times {bullet}$ which cover $X times {bullet}$, where $X times {bullet}$ is given the subspace topology of $X times Y$. In this case, you can simply observe that $pi_1: X times {bullet} to X$ is a homeomorphism, and the proof you've described works perfectly.



          In the case that you are using version 1, observe that the intersection of an open subset of $X times Y$ with $X times {bullet}$ forms an open subset of $X times {bullet}$, which projects under $pi_1$. onto an open subset of $X$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 27 at 1:37









          Dustan LevensteinDustan Levenstein

          10k11647




          10k11647












          • $begingroup$
            Why is it an open subset? Perhaps from compactness of $X$? If we intersect an open disk in $mathbb{R}^2$ with a line $mathbb{R} times {bullet}$ it results in something like an open interval but it is not an open set of course. But $mathbb{R}$ is not compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 4:53












          • $begingroup$
            Actually there exists a closed square centered at the origin containing the open disk so we can replace $mathbb{R}$ with a closed interval $I$.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 5:04












          • $begingroup$
            @Ris it is literally the definition of the subspace topology that an open subset of $X times Y$ intersected with $X times {bullet}$ is an open subset of $X times {bullet}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:25










          • $begingroup$
            If you want to avoid using the subspace topology, just prove that $pi_1(U cap X times {bullet}) subset X$ is open for $U subset X times Y$ open.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:28










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I thought that it meant to be the subset which is open in $X times Y$. Does the term "open subset of $A$" always refer to an open set of the subspace topology on $A$? I was always confused of that.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 28 at 3:59




















          • $begingroup$
            Why is it an open subset? Perhaps from compactness of $X$? If we intersect an open disk in $mathbb{R}^2$ with a line $mathbb{R} times {bullet}$ it results in something like an open interval but it is not an open set of course. But $mathbb{R}$ is not compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 4:53












          • $begingroup$
            Actually there exists a closed square centered at the origin containing the open disk so we can replace $mathbb{R}$ with a closed interval $I$.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 27 at 5:04












          • $begingroup$
            @Ris it is literally the definition of the subspace topology that an open subset of $X times Y$ intersected with $X times {bullet}$ is an open subset of $X times {bullet}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:25










          • $begingroup$
            If you want to avoid using the subspace topology, just prove that $pi_1(U cap X times {bullet}) subset X$ is open for $U subset X times Y$ open.
            $endgroup$
            – Dustan Levenstein
            Jan 27 at 18:28










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I thought that it meant to be the subset which is open in $X times Y$. Does the term "open subset of $A$" always refer to an open set of the subspace topology on $A$? I was always confused of that.
            $endgroup$
            – Ris
            Jan 28 at 3:59


















          $begingroup$
          Why is it an open subset? Perhaps from compactness of $X$? If we intersect an open disk in $mathbb{R}^2$ with a line $mathbb{R} times {bullet}$ it results in something like an open interval but it is not an open set of course. But $mathbb{R}$ is not compact.
          $endgroup$
          – Ris
          Jan 27 at 4:53






          $begingroup$
          Why is it an open subset? Perhaps from compactness of $X$? If we intersect an open disk in $mathbb{R}^2$ with a line $mathbb{R} times {bullet}$ it results in something like an open interval but it is not an open set of course. But $mathbb{R}$ is not compact.
          $endgroup$
          – Ris
          Jan 27 at 4:53














          $begingroup$
          Actually there exists a closed square centered at the origin containing the open disk so we can replace $mathbb{R}$ with a closed interval $I$.
          $endgroup$
          – Ris
          Jan 27 at 5:04






          $begingroup$
          Actually there exists a closed square centered at the origin containing the open disk so we can replace $mathbb{R}$ with a closed interval $I$.
          $endgroup$
          – Ris
          Jan 27 at 5:04














          $begingroup$
          @Ris it is literally the definition of the subspace topology that an open subset of $X times Y$ intersected with $X times {bullet}$ is an open subset of $X times {bullet}$.
          $endgroup$
          – Dustan Levenstein
          Jan 27 at 18:25




          $begingroup$
          @Ris it is literally the definition of the subspace topology that an open subset of $X times Y$ intersected with $X times {bullet}$ is an open subset of $X times {bullet}$.
          $endgroup$
          – Dustan Levenstein
          Jan 27 at 18:25












          $begingroup$
          If you want to avoid using the subspace topology, just prove that $pi_1(U cap X times {bullet}) subset X$ is open for $U subset X times Y$ open.
          $endgroup$
          – Dustan Levenstein
          Jan 27 at 18:28




          $begingroup$
          If you want to avoid using the subspace topology, just prove that $pi_1(U cap X times {bullet}) subset X$ is open for $U subset X times Y$ open.
          $endgroup$
          – Dustan Levenstein
          Jan 27 at 18:28












          $begingroup$
          Oh I thought that it meant to be the subset which is open in $X times Y$. Does the term "open subset of $A$" always refer to an open set of the subspace topology on $A$? I was always confused of that.
          $endgroup$
          – Ris
          Jan 28 at 3:59






          $begingroup$
          Oh I thought that it meant to be the subset which is open in $X times Y$. Does the term "open subset of $A$" always refer to an open set of the subspace topology on $A$? I was always confused of that.
          $endgroup$
          – Ris
          Jan 28 at 3:59




















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