Show that the cardinal of $ A := left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n text{ and } binom{n}{k} text{ is odd}...












5












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Number of odd binomial coefficients is a power of $2$

    2 answers




Let $ A := left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n text{ and } binom{n}{k} text{ is odd} right} $.



I must show that the cardinal of $A$ is a power of 2.



I have tried to show that there exist a bijection between $A$ and the set of subparts of another set, but unsuccessfully.



I also thought about trying to show that the cardinal of $A$ must divide the cardinal of $ P(left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n right}) $ (it is $ 2^{n+1} $), which would ensure the result, but I do not think this a good path.



Are there simple arguments to show that ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Chris Culter, Cesareo, Theo Bendit, Lord Shark the Unknown, mrtaurho Jan 29 at 6:11


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    But the solution given is not very simple. Simplier arguments ?
    $endgroup$
    – MrMaths
    Jan 28 at 21:22
















5












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Number of odd binomial coefficients is a power of $2$

    2 answers




Let $ A := left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n text{ and } binom{n}{k} text{ is odd} right} $.



I must show that the cardinal of $A$ is a power of 2.



I have tried to show that there exist a bijection between $A$ and the set of subparts of another set, but unsuccessfully.



I also thought about trying to show that the cardinal of $A$ must divide the cardinal of $ P(left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n right}) $ (it is $ 2^{n+1} $), which would ensure the result, but I do not think this a good path.



Are there simple arguments to show that ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Chris Culter, Cesareo, Theo Bendit, Lord Shark the Unknown, mrtaurho Jan 29 at 6:11


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    But the solution given is not very simple. Simplier arguments ?
    $endgroup$
    – MrMaths
    Jan 28 at 21:22














5












5








5





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Number of odd binomial coefficients is a power of $2$

    2 answers




Let $ A := left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n text{ and } binom{n}{k} text{ is odd} right} $.



I must show that the cardinal of $A$ is a power of 2.



I have tried to show that there exist a bijection between $A$ and the set of subparts of another set, but unsuccessfully.



I also thought about trying to show that the cardinal of $A$ must divide the cardinal of $ P(left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n right}) $ (it is $ 2^{n+1} $), which would ensure the result, but I do not think this a good path.



Are there simple arguments to show that ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Number of odd binomial coefficients is a power of $2$

    2 answers




Let $ A := left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n text{ and } binom{n}{k} text{ is odd} right} $.



I must show that the cardinal of $A$ is a power of 2.



I have tried to show that there exist a bijection between $A$ and the set of subparts of another set, but unsuccessfully.



I also thought about trying to show that the cardinal of $A$ must divide the cardinal of $ P(left{ k in mathbf{Z} | 0 leq k leq n right}) $ (it is $ 2^{n+1} $), which would ensure the result, but I do not think this a good path.



Are there simple arguments to show that ?





This question already has an answer here:




  • Number of odd binomial coefficients is a power of $2$

    2 answers








combinatorics binomial-coefficients cardinals






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 28 at 21:25







MrMaths

















asked Jan 28 at 21:05









MrMathsMrMaths

1809




1809




marked as duplicate by Chris Culter, Cesareo, Theo Bendit, Lord Shark the Unknown, mrtaurho Jan 29 at 6:11


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Chris Culter, Cesareo, Theo Bendit, Lord Shark the Unknown, mrtaurho Jan 29 at 6:11


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    But the solution given is not very simple. Simplier arguments ?
    $endgroup$
    – MrMaths
    Jan 28 at 21:22


















  • $begingroup$
    But the solution given is not very simple. Simplier arguments ?
    $endgroup$
    – MrMaths
    Jan 28 at 21:22
















$begingroup$
But the solution given is not very simple. Simplier arguments ?
$endgroup$
– MrMaths
Jan 28 at 21:22




$begingroup$
But the solution given is not very simple. Simplier arguments ?
$endgroup$
– MrMaths
Jan 28 at 21:22










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Let $n=a_rcdot2^r+cdots+a_1cdot2+a_0$ where all $a_iin{0,1}$. For $0le kle n$ let $k=b_rcdot2^r+cdots+b_1cdot2+b_0$ where all $b_iin{0,1}$.



For convenience, denote $Z={i:a_i=0}$ and $N={i:a_i=1}$. Then Lucas Correspondence tells us that
$binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $prod_{iin Z}binom{0}{b_i}cdotprod_{jin N}binom{1}{b_j}=1$. Since $b_i,b_jin{0,1}$, we can conclude that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $b_i=0$ for all $iin Z$. This implies that the number of integers $k$ such that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd is exactly $2^{|N|}$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is there any proof which does not use Lucas Correspondance ?
    $endgroup$
    – MrMaths
    Jan 29 at 7:45



















0












$begingroup$

Consider the following partial involution on the set of size $k$ subsets of ${1,2,dots,n}$. Given such a subset $S$, find the smallest number $i$ such that $S$ contains exactly one of the numbers in ${2i-1,2i}$. Then $f(S)$ is attained by removing that number and adding the other one. We can divide the set of subsets for which $f(S)$ is defined into pairs, ${S,f(S)}$.



The involution is undefined if $S$ contains neither or both of ${2i-1,2i}$ for all $1le i le lfloor n/2rfloor$. If $n$ is even and $k$ is odd, then $f(S)$ is defined for all subsets (why?). Otherwise, there are precisely $binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor}$ subsets for which the involution is undefined. Since removing the pairs defined by $f$ does not affect the parity of $binom{n}k$, this shows
$$
binom{n}{k}equiv_{pmod 2}
begin{cases}
0 & nequiv 0, kequiv 1pmod 2\
binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor} & text{otherwise}
end{cases}tag{1}
$$

Now, let $a_n$ be the number of odd entries in the $n^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle.




  • If $n=2m$ is even, then $binom{2m}k$ is even whenever $k$ is odd. There are $m+1$ entries in the $(2m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle for which $k$ is even. The parities of these entries are equal to the $m+1$ entries of the $m^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle, because $binom{2m}{2i}equiv binom{m}i$, by $(1)$. Therefore,$$a_{2m}=a_m.$$


  • If $n=2m+1$ is odd, then $(1)$ implies $binom{2m+1}{2i}equivbinom{2m+1}{2i+1}equiv binom{m}i$. This means each odd entry in the $(m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle corresponds to two odd entries on the $(2m+1)^{st}$ row, so $$a_{2m+1}=2a_m.$$



These last two equations imply that $a_n$ is always a power of $2$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    3












    $begingroup$

    Let $n=a_rcdot2^r+cdots+a_1cdot2+a_0$ where all $a_iin{0,1}$. For $0le kle n$ let $k=b_rcdot2^r+cdots+b_1cdot2+b_0$ where all $b_iin{0,1}$.



    For convenience, denote $Z={i:a_i=0}$ and $N={i:a_i=1}$. Then Lucas Correspondence tells us that
    $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $prod_{iin Z}binom{0}{b_i}cdotprod_{jin N}binom{1}{b_j}=1$. Since $b_i,b_jin{0,1}$, we can conclude that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $b_i=0$ for all $iin Z$. This implies that the number of integers $k$ such that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd is exactly $2^{|N|}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Is there any proof which does not use Lucas Correspondance ?
      $endgroup$
      – MrMaths
      Jan 29 at 7:45
















    3












    $begingroup$

    Let $n=a_rcdot2^r+cdots+a_1cdot2+a_0$ where all $a_iin{0,1}$. For $0le kle n$ let $k=b_rcdot2^r+cdots+b_1cdot2+b_0$ where all $b_iin{0,1}$.



    For convenience, denote $Z={i:a_i=0}$ and $N={i:a_i=1}$. Then Lucas Correspondence tells us that
    $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $prod_{iin Z}binom{0}{b_i}cdotprod_{jin N}binom{1}{b_j}=1$. Since $b_i,b_jin{0,1}$, we can conclude that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $b_i=0$ for all $iin Z$. This implies that the number of integers $k$ such that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd is exactly $2^{|N|}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Is there any proof which does not use Lucas Correspondance ?
      $endgroup$
      – MrMaths
      Jan 29 at 7:45














    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    Let $n=a_rcdot2^r+cdots+a_1cdot2+a_0$ where all $a_iin{0,1}$. For $0le kle n$ let $k=b_rcdot2^r+cdots+b_1cdot2+b_0$ where all $b_iin{0,1}$.



    For convenience, denote $Z={i:a_i=0}$ and $N={i:a_i=1}$. Then Lucas Correspondence tells us that
    $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $prod_{iin Z}binom{0}{b_i}cdotprod_{jin N}binom{1}{b_j}=1$. Since $b_i,b_jin{0,1}$, we can conclude that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $b_i=0$ for all $iin Z$. This implies that the number of integers $k$ such that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd is exactly $2^{|N|}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Let $n=a_rcdot2^r+cdots+a_1cdot2+a_0$ where all $a_iin{0,1}$. For $0le kle n$ let $k=b_rcdot2^r+cdots+b_1cdot2+b_0$ where all $b_iin{0,1}$.



    For convenience, denote $Z={i:a_i=0}$ and $N={i:a_i=1}$. Then Lucas Correspondence tells us that
    $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $prod_{iin Z}binom{0}{b_i}cdotprod_{jin N}binom{1}{b_j}=1$. Since $b_i,b_jin{0,1}$, we can conclude that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd if and only if $b_i=0$ for all $iin Z$. This implies that the number of integers $k$ such that $binom{n}{k}$ is odd is exactly $2^{|N|}$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 28 at 22:55









    Eric YauEric Yau

    609310




    609310








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Is there any proof which does not use Lucas Correspondance ?
      $endgroup$
      – MrMaths
      Jan 29 at 7:45














    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Is there any proof which does not use Lucas Correspondance ?
      $endgroup$
      – MrMaths
      Jan 29 at 7:45








    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Is there any proof which does not use Lucas Correspondance ?
    $endgroup$
    – MrMaths
    Jan 29 at 7:45




    $begingroup$
    Is there any proof which does not use Lucas Correspondance ?
    $endgroup$
    – MrMaths
    Jan 29 at 7:45











    0












    $begingroup$

    Consider the following partial involution on the set of size $k$ subsets of ${1,2,dots,n}$. Given such a subset $S$, find the smallest number $i$ such that $S$ contains exactly one of the numbers in ${2i-1,2i}$. Then $f(S)$ is attained by removing that number and adding the other one. We can divide the set of subsets for which $f(S)$ is defined into pairs, ${S,f(S)}$.



    The involution is undefined if $S$ contains neither or both of ${2i-1,2i}$ for all $1le i le lfloor n/2rfloor$. If $n$ is even and $k$ is odd, then $f(S)$ is defined for all subsets (why?). Otherwise, there are precisely $binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor}$ subsets for which the involution is undefined. Since removing the pairs defined by $f$ does not affect the parity of $binom{n}k$, this shows
    $$
    binom{n}{k}equiv_{pmod 2}
    begin{cases}
    0 & nequiv 0, kequiv 1pmod 2\
    binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor} & text{otherwise}
    end{cases}tag{1}
    $$

    Now, let $a_n$ be the number of odd entries in the $n^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle.




    • If $n=2m$ is even, then $binom{2m}k$ is even whenever $k$ is odd. There are $m+1$ entries in the $(2m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle for which $k$ is even. The parities of these entries are equal to the $m+1$ entries of the $m^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle, because $binom{2m}{2i}equiv binom{m}i$, by $(1)$. Therefore,$$a_{2m}=a_m.$$


    • If $n=2m+1$ is odd, then $(1)$ implies $binom{2m+1}{2i}equivbinom{2m+1}{2i+1}equiv binom{m}i$. This means each odd entry in the $(m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle corresponds to two odd entries on the $(2m+1)^{st}$ row, so $$a_{2m+1}=2a_m.$$



    These last two equations imply that $a_n$ is always a power of $2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Consider the following partial involution on the set of size $k$ subsets of ${1,2,dots,n}$. Given such a subset $S$, find the smallest number $i$ such that $S$ contains exactly one of the numbers in ${2i-1,2i}$. Then $f(S)$ is attained by removing that number and adding the other one. We can divide the set of subsets for which $f(S)$ is defined into pairs, ${S,f(S)}$.



      The involution is undefined if $S$ contains neither or both of ${2i-1,2i}$ for all $1le i le lfloor n/2rfloor$. If $n$ is even and $k$ is odd, then $f(S)$ is defined for all subsets (why?). Otherwise, there are precisely $binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor}$ subsets for which the involution is undefined. Since removing the pairs defined by $f$ does not affect the parity of $binom{n}k$, this shows
      $$
      binom{n}{k}equiv_{pmod 2}
      begin{cases}
      0 & nequiv 0, kequiv 1pmod 2\
      binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor} & text{otherwise}
      end{cases}tag{1}
      $$

      Now, let $a_n$ be the number of odd entries in the $n^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle.




      • If $n=2m$ is even, then $binom{2m}k$ is even whenever $k$ is odd. There are $m+1$ entries in the $(2m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle for which $k$ is even. The parities of these entries are equal to the $m+1$ entries of the $m^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle, because $binom{2m}{2i}equiv binom{m}i$, by $(1)$. Therefore,$$a_{2m}=a_m.$$


      • If $n=2m+1$ is odd, then $(1)$ implies $binom{2m+1}{2i}equivbinom{2m+1}{2i+1}equiv binom{m}i$. This means each odd entry in the $(m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle corresponds to two odd entries on the $(2m+1)^{st}$ row, so $$a_{2m+1}=2a_m.$$



      These last two equations imply that $a_n$ is always a power of $2$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Consider the following partial involution on the set of size $k$ subsets of ${1,2,dots,n}$. Given such a subset $S$, find the smallest number $i$ such that $S$ contains exactly one of the numbers in ${2i-1,2i}$. Then $f(S)$ is attained by removing that number and adding the other one. We can divide the set of subsets for which $f(S)$ is defined into pairs, ${S,f(S)}$.



        The involution is undefined if $S$ contains neither or both of ${2i-1,2i}$ for all $1le i le lfloor n/2rfloor$. If $n$ is even and $k$ is odd, then $f(S)$ is defined for all subsets (why?). Otherwise, there are precisely $binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor}$ subsets for which the involution is undefined. Since removing the pairs defined by $f$ does not affect the parity of $binom{n}k$, this shows
        $$
        binom{n}{k}equiv_{pmod 2}
        begin{cases}
        0 & nequiv 0, kequiv 1pmod 2\
        binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor} & text{otherwise}
        end{cases}tag{1}
        $$

        Now, let $a_n$ be the number of odd entries in the $n^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle.




        • If $n=2m$ is even, then $binom{2m}k$ is even whenever $k$ is odd. There are $m+1$ entries in the $(2m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle for which $k$ is even. The parities of these entries are equal to the $m+1$ entries of the $m^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle, because $binom{2m}{2i}equiv binom{m}i$, by $(1)$. Therefore,$$a_{2m}=a_m.$$


        • If $n=2m+1$ is odd, then $(1)$ implies $binom{2m+1}{2i}equivbinom{2m+1}{2i+1}equiv binom{m}i$. This means each odd entry in the $(m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle corresponds to two odd entries on the $(2m+1)^{st}$ row, so $$a_{2m+1}=2a_m.$$



        These last two equations imply that $a_n$ is always a power of $2$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Consider the following partial involution on the set of size $k$ subsets of ${1,2,dots,n}$. Given such a subset $S$, find the smallest number $i$ such that $S$ contains exactly one of the numbers in ${2i-1,2i}$. Then $f(S)$ is attained by removing that number and adding the other one. We can divide the set of subsets for which $f(S)$ is defined into pairs, ${S,f(S)}$.



        The involution is undefined if $S$ contains neither or both of ${2i-1,2i}$ for all $1le i le lfloor n/2rfloor$. If $n$ is even and $k$ is odd, then $f(S)$ is defined for all subsets (why?). Otherwise, there are precisely $binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor}$ subsets for which the involution is undefined. Since removing the pairs defined by $f$ does not affect the parity of $binom{n}k$, this shows
        $$
        binom{n}{k}equiv_{pmod 2}
        begin{cases}
        0 & nequiv 0, kequiv 1pmod 2\
        binom{lfloor n/2rfloor}{lfloor k/2rfloor} & text{otherwise}
        end{cases}tag{1}
        $$

        Now, let $a_n$ be the number of odd entries in the $n^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle.




        • If $n=2m$ is even, then $binom{2m}k$ is even whenever $k$ is odd. There are $m+1$ entries in the $(2m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle for which $k$ is even. The parities of these entries are equal to the $m+1$ entries of the $m^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle, because $binom{2m}{2i}equiv binom{m}i$, by $(1)$. Therefore,$$a_{2m}=a_m.$$


        • If $n=2m+1$ is odd, then $(1)$ implies $binom{2m+1}{2i}equivbinom{2m+1}{2i+1}equiv binom{m}i$. This means each odd entry in the $(m)^{th}$ row of Pascal's triangle corresponds to two odd entries on the $(2m+1)^{st}$ row, so $$a_{2m+1}=2a_m.$$



        These last two equations imply that $a_n$ is always a power of $2$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 28 at 22:30









        Mike EarnestMike Earnest

        26.2k22151




        26.2k22151















            Popular posts from this blog

            MongoDB - Not Authorized To Execute Command

            How to fix TextFormField cause rebuild widget in Flutter

            in spring boot 2.1 many test slices are not allowed anymore due to multiple @BootstrapWith